11-Year-Old Boy Dressed In Drag Dances At Gay Bar, Gets Dollar Bills Thrown At Him

I will agree with you there is no way to have an intelligent debate about this.

You ignore clinical peer reviewed research done by multiple universities, abuse networks, psychologists, and medical journals because you cannot comprehend basic terminology. You create definitions while ignoring others to reenforce your prospective. So there is no point in continuing.

Empirical evidence will always hold weight over mere opinion — which is all you have presented here.

 

My God talk about the Pot calling the Kettle black.

Where are your actual numbers, real actual numbers of child victims and who molested them that dispute my premise? If you want to pretend you actually want a debate you can't do it if you can't face the numbers.

 

I have quoted numerous sources showing homosexuals are no more likely to be pedophiles than heterosexuals are, I’ve even quoted passages from your own links that you have posted that show this.

 

So you can't. Thanks for proving me right once again. I named my posts specifically with my evidence and you ran from both of them and when I asked you to do it you can't provide anything.

The only passage you quoted from my link flew directly in the face of their findings and not only did I prove it you never provided any numbers from their own study that backed up their opinion.

 

I don’t care how much you ignore medical science, rational minds will always prevail. It’s why you and your ilk have lost the last multitude of battles you have undertake and why you will continue to do so.

Dr. William C. Holmes, Assistant Professor of Medicine, University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine, authored a study in the December 1998 issue of the Journal of the American Medical Association that indicated that 98 percent of all male perpetrators who had sexually abused boys were identified in their families and communities as heterosexual.

The research is clear, the sexual orientation of an adult is not a factor in the analysis of child abuse. The American Psychological Association, the National Association of Social Workers, the American Academy of Child Psychiatrists and the Child Welfare League of America all have policy statements stating there is no correlation between homosexuality and child abuse.[source]

 

no its you that cant accept and comprehend basic logic

your agreement is the equivalence of claiming a red car isn't really a car because it is red like some how the color of the car determines if its a real car or not

homosexuality isn't about age repeat homosexuality isn't about age its about gender repeat its about gender

and I will concede to your argument if you can give me one definition of homosexuality which age is a stipulation not just gender

 

False. You don’t understand the language in the study and I am unable to dumb down the information further. So we arrive at an impasse.

 

self identified as heterosexuals that's the catch self identified
so I will ask
if a married man with a female wife and kids goes out and has sexual relations with other men is he a homosexual or heterosexual? no matter what he self identifies as

a pig can call its self a duck all it wants but it doesn't make that pig a duck now does it

we are beginning to see the liberal mental illness once again rears it ugly head
the belief of "I say I am there for I am" detachment from reality

 

That is not my argument, or the argument made by the reasearch — but it is how you interpret the data.

I have never said that sexual orientation is limited by age — thus the terms hetero- bi- homo- pedophilia and hetero- bi- homo- teleiophilia. But there exists an entire branch of psychology and sexology that studies age attraction alongside gender attraction — chronophilia in which an individual experiences sexual attraction limited to individuals of particular age ranges.

But your notion that everything outside of heterosexuality is wholly homosexual...
I can’t debate basic classifications, nor will I.


Since all of your arguments henge around per capita population groups of self identification in homosexuals, how many of the individuals that you classify as homosexual self identify as heterosexual and how does that alter the above per capita classification? In your opinion?

 

And once again you prove you can't cite a single source as I cited over 10 to back my argument up nor can you dispute any of the numbers I have provided from multiple sources proving per capita homosexual pedophiles molest more boys than any other group nor can you provide any numbers of your own to dispute it. Thanks for confirming why I have you on ignore.

Next time remember if you want to debate like an adult the nuh uh argument doesn't cut it and now that I've given you multiple chances to provide your fantasy numbers and you cannot do it the ignore button is back in place.

Have a nice day.

 

If it is an adult he would be classified as a bisexual teleiophile. So to directly answer your question — neither.

When all medical research and scientific evidence point away from your beliefs — especially when you can not independently verify those beliefs — they should be re-evaluated.

 

Please keep me there, that way I won’t feel obligated to defend scientific literature when you quote me against your creative reasoning.

 

Gay people get excited over weird things.

 

Not me. I’m using logic. Are you saying men attracted to males aren’t really gay when the male is young? Because in that case men attracted to young girls aren’t really heterosexual. Sorry but doesn’t give you an OUT. You’re gay if you’re attracted to the same sex no matter how old he or she is. You don’t get to move goal posts. Pedos are pedos gay or straight. Sorry bit reality doesn’t agree with you. A gay guy doesn’t get to choose that he’s only gay when he goes out with men but if it’s a boy, then he’s just a hetero pedophile.

You don’t get to “identify” your way out of being a sick SOB.

 

No one is saying there are no homosexual teleiophiles that are also homosexual pedophiles — what is being said, and is backed up by research — is that most pedophiles (hetero- homo- and bi-) are heterosexual teleiophiles and identify as such.

Research that has been presented does indicate that pedophiles are more likely to be homosexual pedophiles but the inverse is not true, homosexual teleiophiles are not more likely to be pedophiles.

 

Here's where it all falls apart.

People who don't like or are bigoted against homosexuals will make comparisons based on skewed ratios purposefully to cast homosexuals in a bad light.

They will say that "homosexuals represent 4% of the population and yet they (implying that the they must be contained within that 4%) molest boys at a rate of 28%."

That's the way it's always sold.

What they miss is that that 4% don't molest boys by 28%, in fact it's slightly less than the percentage that self-represent. Even the 4% number is beginning to rise as younger generations feel more comfortable self reporting an LGBT orientation.

At least you now have the courage to admit that, taken by the measure you employ to define "a homosexual", homosexuals represent a far higher proportion of the population overall.

What is that precise number? Well it's hard to say exactly because, as has been pointed out, most pedophiles who are homosexual (in their attraction to children) are not homosexual in regard to belonging to the group that self-reports a homosexual attraction with respect to other adults. They are not part of the 4% used to concoct the bias ratio.

If, by your standards, we are going to class (as homosexuals) the number of persons who have ever had an attraction to someone of the same sex, regardless of age, then the overall number of "homosexuals" rises. How far? We don't know, because I'm not aware that researchers even conflate the separate groups but let's say it goes up to 28%? Well, if the overall number of "homosexuals" (by your standards, persons attracted to persons of the same sex regardless of age,) is 28% and 28% of offenses committed are homosexual in nature then the statistical ratio is the same for "homosexuals" and "heterosexuals".

Therefore there is no basis in the claim that homosexuals are "far more likely" to be pedophiles. In this instance they would be equally likely by ratio.

(It's not exactly that simple because ease of access and repeat offenses are also a factor but that's far closer to the mark).

 

Ludicrous, homophobic fantasy.

 

Truth rule?

There was a truth rule?

 

Absolutely ridiculous; ludicrous.

 

^ And yet another thread win.

 

AKA the 9th redundant cycle.

Or is that 9th Circle?

True Believers CANNOT be reasoned with.

Facts mean nothing; logic is an alien language.

Their only weapon - and they are endlessly at war - is the Goebbelsian tactic of repeating the falsehood again and again and again and again until others simply walk away, at which point they claim a bizarre *victory.*

They will NEVER embrace reality.

It's not what they do.

 

^ Cannot refute the truth; insists failure is success.

 

Yet more DISHONESTY in defense of your odious homophobic bigotry all you have left now?

 

Are you now denying that YOU made this post in response to an allegation that gays were masturbating in the bar?

Your feeble attempt at a deflection says volumes.

 

Perilously close to a PF Rule Violation duly noted for the record!

Sexual attraction to ADULTS is either straight or homosexual!

Sexual attraction to CHILDREN is PEDOPHILIA!

The former is LEGAL and the latter is illegal!

The MAJORITY of pedophiles have a sexual orientation towards the OPPOSITE gender.

Those are the FACTS and no amount of homophobic bigotry is going to change them.