Aren't these Ukrainian laws the Nazi ones?

Discussion in 'Political Opinions & Beliefs' started by Robert84, Apr 17, 2022.

  1. Robert84

    Robert84 Active Member

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    One of the main declared tasks of the Russian military operation in Ukraine is denazification of Ukraine.
    Therefore, it is important to answer the question – Is the present Ukraine a Nazi state?

    The main feature of Nazism is division of citizens according to their ethnic origin into categories which have different rights.

    A classic example of a Nazi state was the Hitler's Germany where Germans had all rights, Slavic minorities – Lusatians etc. – had less rights than Germans, and Jews had less rights than Slavs.
    Therefore, at that time the German society had the form of a pyramid where some ethnic groups were placed higher and some other lower.
    [​IMG]

    Many aspects of life were regulated according to this pyramid, inter alia, Jews had no right to marry Germans; many professions could be practices only by Germans, etc.


    The present Ukraine

    According to the Constitution of Ukraine, all Ukrainian citizens irrespective of their ethnic origin have equal rights.

    But is it really so?

    Let’s analyze, for example, the Ukrainian Law on Indigenous Peoples and Law on Secondary Education.

    These laws provide that only Ukrainians, Crimean Tatars and two other small Crimean Turkic peoples have the right to be taught in Ukraine with use of their native languages in all grades of secondary school.

    Ethnic Hungarians, Romanians and Bulgarians have the right to be taught in Ukraine with use of their native languages in elementary school, but after the fourth grade they must be taught with use of the Ukrainian language during at least 20% of annual school hours in middle school. The percentage of use of the Ukrainian language gradually increases for such children in the following grades and reaches 60% of annual school hours in high school.

    As for ethnic Russians, the education for their children in Ukraine can be provided in elementary school with use of the Russian language together with learning of the Ukrainian language, but after the fourth grade they must be taught with use of the Ukrainian language during at least 80% of annual school hours.

    Therefore, we see in the domain of education in Ukraine the same pyramid when citizens are divided into categories which we saw in the Nazi Germany.
    [​IMG]

    And such curtailment of rights of ethnic Russians in Ukraine has taken place gradually - with apologies, regrets etc. – but systematically.

    For example, after the “Victory of Euromaidan” in 2014 – although Euromaidan had originally been declared as people's insurrection against the “corrupt regime of Yanukovych” – the Ukrainian Parliament at the same day repealed the Law on Regional Languages.

    Three months later, the first “post-revolutionary” Ukrainian President Poroshenko in his interview for Le Figaro called this decision of the Parliament a mistake (see here), but later this law was finally repealed.

    Over the last 8 years the Ukrainian rulers failed to prove that the “corrupt regime of Yanukovych” had stolen one single dollar (see here) but they did very much for curtailment of rights of ethnic Russians in Ukraine.

    Therefore, I am sure that they planned to do much more for such curtailment.

    And please answer the question – Aren't the above-mentioned Ukrainian laws the Nazi ones?

    Source
     
  2. 61falcon

    61falcon Well-Known Member

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    Is RUSSIA CURRENTLY A COMMUNIST STATE OR JUST A PLAIN RUN OF THE MILL DICTATORSHIP???
     
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  3. Alwayssa

    Alwayssa Well-Known Member

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    Your blog does not prove Nazism in Ukraine at all. Or shall we talk about Israel here and their laws on the same situation.
     
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  4. Josh77

    Josh77 Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Lol, what a load of garbage. No, they are not Nazi laws.
     
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  5. Robert84

    Robert84 Active Member

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    Does it mean that in your opinion it is a normal situation when in the 21st century the citizens of a state according to their ethnic origin are divided into categories which have different rights?

    And does it mean that in your opinion such a state isn’t a Nazi state?
     
  6. ECA

    ECA Well-Known Member

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    Ah…so Russia’s invasion of Ukraine is a humanitarian act??? Hahahaha what a load of horse excrement.
     
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  7. Josh77

    Josh77 Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    You're babbling nonsense that doesn't fit together.
     
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  8. Rampart

    Rampart Banned

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    pleasse apply that model to the current united states. are russians in ukraine treated less equally than navajo or black americans?
     
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  9. MJ Davies

    MJ Davies Well-Known Member

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    I was just about to ask this question. Add in all non-white, non-Christian (any other religion or atheist), non-heterosexual person in this country. For those of us that don't pretend "we're all equal" the answer will be it's not comparable. That's why it's exactly comparable.
     
  10. Hey Now

    Hey Now Well-Known Member

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    Is this multiple choice? :)
     
  11. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    it's good to see even Trump supporters are not supporting Putin
     
  12. ShadowX

    ShadowX Well-Known Member

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    How are blacks treated less according to law?
     
    Last edited: Apr 18, 2022
  13. ShadowX

    ShadowX Well-Known Member

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    Please explain how any of those people you referred to are not equal under the law?

    Because the ONLY group in America who is treated worse under law is white peoples. Whom you conveniently neglected to mention.
     
    Last edited: Apr 18, 2022
  14. Robert84

    Robert84 Active Member

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    If you know some US laws, which divide US citizens according to their ethnic origin into categories having different rights, please tell the titles of these US laws and tell how they divide US citizens into these categories.

    I personally don’t know such US laws, but I know such Ukrainian laws and I can tell the titles of these Ukrainian laws - the Ukrainian Law on Indigenous Peoples and Law on Secondary Education; please see the first post of this thread.
     
  15. Seth Bullock

    Seth Bullock Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    It seems perfectly normal to me that if you’re going to educate students, that they learn the country’s primary language. This actually empowers them for their future. What this does is create bilingual students and future adults. I don’t see this as persecution at all.
     
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  16. Robert84

    Robert84 Active Member

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    There is no single word about the country’s primary language in the first post of this thread.
    Many countries have a country’s primary language and all citizens equally must learn it in order to be able to communicate with each other.

    But in Ukraine, Crimean Tatars have the right to be taught with use of the Tatar language in all grades of secondary school.

    And, for example, ethnic Hungarians have the right to be taught in Ukraine with use of the Hungarian language in elementary school, but after the fourth grade they must be taught with use of the country’s primary language (with use of Ukrainian) during at least 20% of annual school hours in middle school.

    And the education for ethnic Russians in Ukraine can be provided in elementary school with use of the Russian language together with learning of the Ukrainian language, but after the fourth grade they must be taught with use of the Ukrainian language during at least 80% of annual school hours.

    There is no equality for ethnic groups in Ukraine, there is a division of citizens according to their ethnic origin into categories which have different rights; i.e. Ukraine is a Nazi state!
     
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  17. FatBack

    FatBack Well-Known Member

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    I remember the Nazis.... They went invading their neighbors and slaughtering them. They have common comrades in Russians!
     
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  18. Seth Bullock

    Seth Bullock Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I wouldn’t characterize what you’re describing as evidence that a country is a Nazi state.
     
  19. Tipper101

    Tipper101 Well-Known Member

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    if the claims of proven liars are worthy of analysis then that’s all you’ll ever have time for.
     
  20. Grau

    Grau Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I think that after closer and more objective examination you'll find that there is very little similarity between National Socialist (NS) Germany and Ukraine's ersatz "Nazis".
    Comparisons are made even more difficult due to the fact that there is perhaps more disinformation about NS Germany, WW 2 and the holocaust than any other topic(s).

    For example, there were, indeed, marriages between Jews and non Jewish Germans.
    We need only look at the Rosenstrasse Protest to see the degree to which these marriages not only existed but were reluctantly tolerated. (1)

    If Russia really invaded Ukraine to save it from Nazism, one would hardly expect Ukraine to have a Jewish president.
    Even though NS Germany had several high ranking non Communist Jews in the NS Party(2), it is unlikely that NS Germany would have been led by a Jewish individual at least during wartime.

    Finally, even though one would not be surprised to find Jews, today, fighting the Russian invaders along with their Ukrainian neighbors, most people would be surprised to learn that 150,000 Jews fought in Germany's WW 2 military(3) with many Jews reaching Germany's highest ranks and earning Germany's highest military honors.

    The OP asks the question:
    I believe that Putin's attempt to portray Ukraine as a "Nazi State" relies on only superficial features like flags and WW 2 era markings. Putin is simply trying to justify a transparent land grab and horrific loss of life based on the visceral and negative reaction that much of the world has toward Nazism.
    Briefly put, I think that there is too much of a time difference and too many dissimilar features to compare the two countries and their respective conflicts.






    (1) “The Women’s Rosenstrasse Protest”
    https://historycollection.co/taking-stand-evil-tales-german-resistance-wwii/8/

    EXCERPT “Between February 27 and March 6, 1943, a group of non-Jewish Germans protested outside of the Jewish community building at Rosenstrasse 2-4 in Berlin. At the center, 2,000 Jews had been imprisoned, comprised mostly of the Jewish husbands of non-Jewish women and the male children that came from the mixed marriages.

    Women and children, even as guns were held to their heads, refused to leave or back down. The SS were ordered not to shoot because the protests were not viewed by Joseph Goebbels as political, but rather as women desperate to keep their families together. On March 5, men in SS trucks threatened the crowd with automatic weapons but still they remained. On March 6, all of the people imprisoned at Rosenstrasse were ordered to be released by Goebbels, finally ending the protests and going down in history as one of the most substantial acts of resistance in Germany against the Nazis.” CONTINUED


    (2) “List of Nazis of non-Germanic descent”
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Nazis_of_non-Germanic_descent

    EXCERPT “Notably, there were several high-ranking Nazis of full and partial Jewish descent. “ CONTINUED


    (3) “Hitler’s Jewish Army”
    http://counterpsyops.com/2013/02/14/...-hitlers-army/

    EXCERPT “Thousands of men of Jewish descent and hundreds of what the Nazis called ‘full Jews’ served in the German military with Adolf Hitler’s knowledge and approval.

    In approximately 20 cases, Jewish soldiers in the Nazi army were awarded(*)Germany’s highest military honor, the Knight’s Cross.

    Jews also served in the Nazi police and security forces as ghetto police(Ordnungdienst)(*)and concentration camp guards(*)(kapos).

    So what happens to the claim that Hitler sought to exterminate all Jews, when he allowed some of them to join in his struggle against Bolshevism and International finance capitalism?

    “If the Jews were permitted to serve in Hitler’s armed forces then there could not have been a Holocaust.”CONTINUED
     
  21. Robert84

    Robert84 Active Member

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    Please read in Wikipedia the article Nuremberg Laws - a citation and link are below.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuremberg_Laws


    You say that a state, whose President is a half-Jew, cannot be a Nazi state. And it doesn’t matter what is going on in this state.

    My opinion is that it does matter what is going on in the respective state. And if the citizens of this state according to their ethnic origin are divided into categories, which have different rights, it is a Nazi state - regardless of the ethnicity of its President.
     
    Last edited: Apr 18, 2022
  22. Alwayssa

    Alwayssa Well-Known Member

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    the only "whites" treated worse under the law may be the Hesiodic Jews. However, regular ole white folks are not treated worse under the law. In fact, a white person who commits a crime is far less likely to receive a lengthy jail sentence than a person of color of said crime, with the same background, in a majority of cases. In this study, sentencing for a crime greater than 180 months is far more likely in blacks than whites.

    https://news.gsu.edu/research-magazine/spring2020/incarceration
     
  23. Alwayssa

    Alwayssa Well-Known Member

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    You do realize Hitler was a one-quarter Jew, right? And yet, Germany under Nazism was a prime example of Nazism.

    The laws in Germany were for "Aryan" blood who had all the rights and privileges in Germany. You could not marry in Germany unless you can prove Aryan purity. You could not get a decent-paying job unless you can prove Aryan purity. And in the end, only Aryan purity was able to join the only political party available in Nazi Germany. Nothing like that exists in Ukraine or pretty much anywhere else.
     
  24. Grau

    Grau Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I must admit that I have difficulty labeling any other government as "Nazi" other than Germany's WW 2 era National Socialist government. Since the term is so widely misapplied, I prefer the more general term, fascist.

    Apparently, there must have been numerous exceptions made to the Nuremberg Laws since so many Jews were recognized as "honorary Aryans" and could either hold high positions in Germany's National Socialist Party, marry non Jewish Germans or serve in Germany's WW 2 military.

    After all, there were additional protests like the Rosenstrasse protest in which non Jewish German women opposed the incarceration of their Jewish husbands.

    I think that it is also noteworthy that the German Zionist Federation strongly opposed Jewish - non Jewish marriages too.
    Even in Israel, today, "...no inter-faith marriages performed from within the country are legally recognized."(1)

    Re:
    You're right. A government can indeed be fascist regardless of the leader's ethnic / religious background.

    I also agree that affording different rights to people according to their race, religion, or ethnic background is another ugly feature of fascism.

    Thanks,



    (1) "Marriage in Israel"
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marriage_in_Israel

    EXCERPT "Marriage in Israel can be performed only under the auspices of the religious community to which couples belong, and no inter-faith marriages performed from within the country are legally recognized" CONTINUED
     
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  25. Grau

    Grau Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Re:
    Please note that some Jews even rose to high ranking positions in Germany's National Socialist party(1) and also were awarded some of Germany's highest military honors with the full knowledge and approval of Hitler and Germany's High Command.
    (Please see my Post # 20)
    Hitler's doctor was Jewish, his chauffeur was Jewish and he even had a young, Jewish "pen pal" who shared his birthday.

    Thanks,



    (1) “List of Nazis of non-Germanic descent”
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Nazis_of_non-Germanic_descent

    EXCERPT “Notably, there were several high-ranking Nazis of full and partial Jewish descent. “ CONTINUED


    (2) "Remarkable tale of Hitler's young Jewish friend"
    https://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-46192941
     

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