Can States choose to distribute electoral votes according to the popular vote?

Discussion in 'Political Opinions & Beliefs' started by FivepointFive, Apr 4, 2019.

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  1. ArmySoldier

    ArmySoldier Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Thank you for refusing to cite the constitutional text you thought you were referring to. We now know how much credibility you have in discussions moving forrward.
     
  2. StarFox

    StarFox Banned

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    Colorado now has a dem house, senate and governor, so they rammed that bullshit law down our throats. They know we are a blue state and they are trying to manipulate it so that we always give our votes to dems,....however, what they are not contemplating is the possibility that Trump just might take the popular vote this time around. How many republicans that live in Illinois or NY or California perhaps stayed home and didn't bother to vote this last time because they knew their vote was pointless, he was never going to win in any of those states. How many dems stayed home in those states? Probably none, they were angry, scared and stupid and wanted to put a woman in the white house, so I bet 99.9% of them voted.
    Now that the MSM and the dems have made a big deal each and every day over the popular vote they have now given life to those republicans and independents in those blue states that didn't bother to vote. It would be poetic justice if Colorado votes for a democrat then Trump wins the popular vote and the electoral votes have to be changed from the democrat candidate to Trump.. Poetic justice that would be.
    Thank you dems for crying and whining non stop about the popular vote, I know people here in Colorado that would have voted for Trump but felt it was a waste of time, now they know that their vote will count for something at least.
     
  3. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    I’ve repeatedly showed you where it is. The court specifically cites where. It’s why Texas is a state, and not a separate country.
     
  4. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    You were given the text, which is in the Texas v white ruling. Lol. Pretending you haven’t been is just silly.
     
  5. ArmySoldier

    ArmySoldier Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    You have still not cited any text from the constitution. You have zero credibility. Quit while you're behind. Your hole is deepening.
     
  6. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    I am not the one in a hole, lol. You were given the Supreme Court ruling, which cites the specific language in the constitution.

    It’s why Texas is still a state, and not a separate country.
     
  7. FivepointFive

    FivepointFive Banned

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    it seems to me a lot of people in other states decided who the president was in 2016
     
  8. Bluesguy

    Bluesguy Well-Known Member Donor

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    Which "specific language" did Texas v White cite? Which Article and clause I can't find one.
     
  9. Bluesguy

    Bluesguy Well-Known Member Donor

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    You haven't cited any "specific language" that I can find, what message number else cite the "specific language" in the Constitution to which Texas v White does as you claim.
     
    Last edited: May 16, 2019
  10. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Read it.
     
  11. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Read the ruling in Texas v white.
     
  12. Bluesguy

    Bluesguy Well-Known Member Donor

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    Your vote doesn't have equal weight with the other voters in your state?

    The federal government, a federal judge, decreed long ago during the civil rights movement that the government of the city in which I lived was unconstitutional because the three city commissioners, a police commissioner, a finance commissioner and public works commissioner there was no elected mayor it was rotated between the three for ceremonial purpose, who were elected in a popular city wide vote. Everyone's vote had equal weight. The judge decreed that 7 districts would be created with 3 of them zoned to be predominately black in order to elect three commissioners based on their race being black. He also decreed that no major bill or law or policy could be passed unless at least one of the black districts voted for the measure. IOW if the 4 white districts voted for something, a majority, it could not pass unless one of the black districts voted for it. Did that give everyone in the city an equal vote? That was done under the Voting Rights Act.
     
  13. Bluesguy

    Bluesguy Well-Known Member Donor

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    It's your claim it uses "specific language" from the constitution, I have no obligation to read the entire Texas vs White ruling to hunt it out. The obligation is on you to cite which "specific language" of the Constitution is cited.

    Of course I'm still waiting for you to support your claim that Bush43 could have and should have vetoed the Democrats 2009 Omnibus budget bill.
     
  14. Bluesguy

    Bluesguy Well-Known Member Donor

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    Cite it, it's YOUR claim.
     
  15. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Right. Nobody gives a **** if you read it or not. Reality will remain the same either way. Texas v white ruling cites the specific language in the constitution precluding a state from seceding.

    It’s why Texas is a state, and not a separate country.
     
  16. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    I did. Texas v white.
     
  17. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    no idea where you live, but I think the one with the most votes should always win... otherwise you get idiots like Trump
     
  18. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    for any state to leave they woudl have to take their portion of the debt, no state will be leaving anytime soon, especially Texas that takes in more in federal dollar them it puts in
     
  19. fmw

    fmw Well-Known Member

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    You missed the point.
     

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