Drawing a Line In the Sand

Discussion in 'Gay & Lesbian Rights' started by Soft Josh (the) Freeman, Oct 12, 2011.

  1. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    You merely have to click on the



    http://www.courts.ca.gov/documents/S147999.pdf

    Social.
     
  2. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    This models the line that will be drawn in legal ink (not sand) in the U.S., in due time.
     
  3. Perriquine

    Perriquine On hiatus Past Donor

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    Doesn't change the FACT that you're quoting a PATERNITY law, not marriage law. We've been over this before, but obviously it hasn't sunk in. The fact that legal marriage is useful to other legislation does NOT mean those laws govern marriage. They govern the substance of the law contained in them, in this case, paternity. As such, the law you're quoting proves nothing about marriage beyond the fact that legislators employ it when shaping other areas of law.

    Marriage doesn't itself create the presumption of legal paternity. The law does, and in this case the law bases that presumption on the existence of a legal marriage. It's a fine distinction, but I really don't think you're too stupid to understand it.

    Which, as I pointed out above, we've discussed before. That leads me to conclude that YOU are the one willfully ignoring reality here.
     
  4. Perriquine

    Perriquine On hiatus Past Donor

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    Does the court really have the power to control society? No. The justices may pontificate on it if they like, but it's mere rhetoric, not substance.

    Here's where I'll remind you that your claim was aimed at what you believe same-sex couples are attempting to do. What you linked to was the opinion of the court in a ruling favoring them. So you haven't actually proved much of anything.
     
  5. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    The court adopted the arguments of the gay couples who brought the suit. And they may not have the power but that didnt stop them from trying to use marriage laws to do just that.
     
  6. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    That law and the almost identical laws in most all states comes originally from the "Uniform Marriage Act"
     
  7. Perriquine

    Perriquine On hiatus Past Donor

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    Still a law governing paternity, not marriage. The appearance of the word 'marriage' in the title of the act doesn't make this particular provision a marriage law. It's very clearly a law governing paternity.
     
  8. Perriquine

    Perriquine On hiatus Past Donor

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    Answer the question:

    Should same-sex couples and their relationships not be accorded dignity and respect?
     
  9. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    I did answer. And thats a determination to be made by each individual. Not resulting from government indoctrination. Gays produce orgasms and 57% of the new aids cases in the US. Heterosexuals perpetuate the huiman species.
     
  10. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    What silliness. All the laws that define the legal effects of marriage, are marriage laws.
     
  11. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    Good question!

    You didn't ask me, but I will share my thoughts:

    I say that the answer SOCIALLY is "yes"; but MOST IMPORTANTLY (Constitutionally and LEGALLY) the answer should/will ultimately be "YES".
     
  12. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    It's not 'silly'; the answer given to you was spot-on. You are not THE legal expert of America. Your sole interpretation of the law, is not THE definition of existing laws. Even lawyers ARGUE these laws today; you are in no way... the final authority on how laws are 'defined'.

    Give us all a break; please.
     
  13. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    yep, that's a paternity law. doesn't apply to all married couples. only parents. it's not binding. if daddy isn't daddy, he has no responsibility.

    get something new. this argument has been refuted for months.
     
  14. BullsLawDan

    BullsLawDan New Member

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    So, like most *********s, you're all about YOUR freedom, not anyone else's freedom.
     
    Johnny-C and (deleted member) like this.
  15. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Actually, in many states, after 2 years the presumption becomes irrebutable. Regardless, it doesnt matter in reference to my point.
     
  16. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Tax breaks and governmental entitlements arent freedoms. Government isnt required to actually encourage behavior, in order for individuals to be free to engage in that behavior. Homosexuals are free to engage in any behavior they like. Just dont expect society to collectively encourage and subsidize with tax breaks and governmental entitlements that behavior.
     
  17. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    Amen to THAT concept! You nailed it!
     
  18. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    Has practically nothing to do with the right of homosexuals to be legally married, or any other thing related to homosexuality. So... what the hell are you talking about that for?

    (Any valid reason at this point might do.)
     
  19. rahl

    rahl Banned

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  20. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    No one claimed Rahls strawman was anything other than Rahls strawman. Of course it has nothing to do with homosexual marriage.
     
  21. rahl

    rahl Banned

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  22. BullsLawDan

    BullsLawDan New Member

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    Maybe you'll actually answer me this time: Can a couple who is not legally married take real estate in a tenancy by the entireties?
     
  23. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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  24. Perriquine

    Perriquine On hiatus Past Donor

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    I'll take that as a no, then.
     
  25. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    Anti-gay bigotry takes on all kinds of forms; it's sad.
     

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