Gay Marriages Should Be Denied.

Discussion in 'Gay & Lesbian Rights' started by Johnny-C, Nov 5, 2011.

  1. Osiris Faction

    Osiris Faction Well-Known Member

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    Actually your completely wrong there. Marriage does indeed cover the children of gays.

    That's the beauty of marriage, it allows the spouse to take custody of the children in the event of the death of the other.
     
  2. MegadethFan

    MegadethFan Well-Known Member

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    There are none that aren't based on some arbitrary and prejudicial notion of recognizing civil unions. Marriage should be defined and determined outside of the law. Its a primarily subjective concept and should be left to the participants, not the state, to define. I'm sick of PC conservatives having a cry about getting the government getting out of people's social lives.
     
  3. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Nope

    § 160.204. PRESUMPTION OF PATERNITY.
    (a) A man is presumed to be the father of a child if:
    (1) he is married to the mother of the child and the child is born during the marriage;.......

    No application whatsoever to a gay couple. A married lesbian woman gives birth to a child, the other partner has no legal parental obligations or parental rights in the child. As it should be because she has no connection to the child whatsoever. A married gay man fathers a child, his same sex spouse again has no legal parental obligations or parental rights in the child. As it should be because he has no connection to the child whatsoever.

    Your silly declarations that I am wrong, couldnt be more meaningless.
     
  4. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    You can marry whomever you like. The issue is whether government should give tax breaks and governmental entitlements to those who do. The government always defines who gets governmental tax breaks and entitlements.
     
  5. MegadethFan

    MegadethFan Well-Known Member

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    You should be able to, yes, as long as they consent.

    It should do no such thing.

    Sure. In the case of marriage no such distinction should exist. If there were to be some managerial procedure to make it cheaper or more efficient or whatever in addressing civil unions, then they could do that, but this would be irrelevant to marriage once again.
     
  6. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    It does, and most everyone here advocates it being extended to gays. Thus the topic "gay marriages" as opposed to marriage for any two consenting people who wish it.
     
  7. Agent Zero

    Agent Zero New Member

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    I'm fine with marriage carrying with it special incentives and rights. Though as long as those things are a part of marriage, it will be a constitutional issue.
     
  8. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Yes it is. Thats why marriage remains an institution limited to heterosexual couples in 44 states because most states adhere to the Constitution.
     
  9. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Just like MANY heterosexual couples. Making your point irrelevant.
     
  10. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Already refuted. If daddy isn't the daddy, he has no responsibility
     
  11. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Doesnt even have an impact upon my point. You still havent been able to comprehend my point.
     
  12. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Actually, after two years in most states the presumption become irrefutable.
     
  13. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Not just an impact, but a direct refutation of your point. My comprehention is just fine.
     
  14. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Oonly if daddy doesn't challenge it. Making it a voluntary responsibility. If daddy challenges it, and he's not daddy, he has no responsibility.

    Would you like to quit while you're behind? Or do you require further embarrassment?
     
  15. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    No, my point is that it cannot apply in the case of a gay couple. The fact that it doesnt apply in every single case of heterosexual couples marriage doesnt change the fact that it NEVER applies in the case of a gay couple. Only a man can be the father of a womans child so only a man married to a woman is presumed to be the father of her child. Biology!
     
  16. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    "irrefutable" means that when daddy seeks to refute the presumption, he cannot.
     
  17. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    dixon, I think you're a distraction... paid (or weirdly-motivated) to make strange/illogical noise here.

    I'll check your posts occasionally for now; you're on ignore.

    Others need to NOT let you be a distraction as well.
     
  18. dixon76710

    dixon76710 Well-Known Member

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    Promises, promises.
     
  19. Johnny-C

    Johnny-C Well-Known Member

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    ___Yep.___
     
  20. rahl

    rahl Banned

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  21. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    of course he can. If he chooses not to contest paternity, within the two year time span, he voluntarily accepts responsibility. If he chooses to contest it in the two year time span, and he's not the daddy, he has no responsibility. making it irrelevant.
     

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