There is some confusion about the word homosexual. People assume it means someone who has sex with a member of their own sex, but actually means someone who is sexually attracted to a member of their own sex (Google it if you want). This is a small but important distinction. For one thing, it shifts the definition to include those who have never had sex with a member of their own sex, but never the less, want to. This includes virgins who are attracted to their own sex or people who have sex with the opposite sex, but are still attracted their own sex. It also excludes those that are attracted to the opposite sex, but have had sex with the same sex. This includes drunken one-night stands, prison rapes and experimentation. I've seen many people on this forum say that we can choose to have sex with whomever we want, and I believe that is true. We human beings are quite capable of having sex with whomever or whatever we want, but attraction is a different story. If we could control who we are attracted to, there would be much less relationship problems in the world. Hell, the Trojan war would had never been fought (according to Homer). This shows that no matter what the cause of homosexuality (genetics, fetal hormonal levels, environmental conditions, upbringing, God, etc...), it is clearly not a choice. One more thing about attraction versus sex, is that works with paraphilias also. This is why it is dishonest to make a connection between homosexuals and pedophiles. Homosexuality is the sexual attraction to the same sex, Heterosexuality is the attraction to the opposite sex and Pedophilia is the sexual attraction to children. These are three distinct sexualities with three distinct attractions. Yes, you can break down pedolphilia even further into those attracted to children of the same sex or children of the opposite sex, but the attraction is still toward children. Now before you guys get your panties in a bunch and say that I am advocating pedophilia, I'm making excuses for pedophilia or that the same arguments can be used to support pedophilia, let me remind you that having sex with children is illegal because children cannot consent to sex. Children do not have the maturity to make that decision. This is all throughout our laws. Children cannot make mature decisions so things like signing contracts and consenting to sex is impossible for them. Arguing that adults have the right to marry any adult they want or have sex with any adult they want in no way supports pedophilia since you would have to argue that children are capable of consenting to sex. Now I have a prediction that certain people on this forum are going to be highly offended by the thought that you can be gay even if you have not had sex with the same sex. This is because they are in so much denial of their attractions, they have made a veneer of heterosexality over their lives to keep others and themselves from realizing the truth.
So a guy who is attracted to little boys isn't a homosexual. Have I got that right? You are... ...and they can. A mere legal convention which is as easily dispensed with as were anti-sodomy laws. If you don't think there are 80 year olds who lack the maturity to make that decision, then pilgrim, you don't think too good. The problem being...? Hope surely springs eternal in the hearts the perversely inclined.
It's always amusing watching some posters ^^^^^^^ who have no substance in their arguments act like a snarky (*)(*)(*)(*)(*)(*) bag and pretend they are superior when they are in fact a joke.
But the criminal intent behind acts of pedophilia, abuse and rape involves a more complex motivator beyond simple attraction. There has to be an attraction to power and control, that normal sexual liaisons do not have. In most groomed sexual abuse cases, the power is psychological and coercive without being physically threatening, but the predator is as infatuated with the power as he is with any body type. He is just like the rapist, who can't stop fixating on the total control over the victim as a huge part of the lust.
Yes, they are a pedophile. Prove it. You seriously believe that two consenting adult males having sex is equivalent to having sex with children? Well, the Supreme Court doesn't. Lawrence v. Texas said anti-sodomy laws are unconstitutional because private sexual conduct is protected by the liberty rights implicit in the due process clause of the United States Constitution. However, this didn't invalidate ANY child molestation laws. Because CHILDREN CANNOT CONSENT. Adults can smoke, drink, sign contracts, consent to sex, fight in wars and vote. None of this is available to children. There is even distinctions between teens and children. Teens can drive (at 16 in places) and get jobs. Again, none of this is available to children. Our laws are ripe with these kind of laws. To say that it would be easy to get rid of those is beyond ludicrous. There are 20 year olds that lack the maturity, but there is no way to test for maturity so the law uses age. Do you see anyone arguing that children can consent to sex.
By your own definition, he's also a homosexual. You do understand that, right? To your satisfaction? For reasons unrelated to the truth value of the assertions, that may not be possible. I never said or implied anything of the kind, obviously. And in so doing, arguably violates the unalienable right to sexual self-expression of those children who are mature enough to consent. Non-responsive. I asked you why arguing that children can consent to sex is a problem. You gonna answer or not?
You are absolutely right, I did an injustice to the victims by simplifying it as I did. It does go beyond mere attraction, though my basic premise that homosexuality and pedophilia are unrelated. still stands.
No, that is by your definition. If he is attracted to men too, then he is homosexual, however, there have been many cases of men who have never had sex with other men, but molest boys. If Then you agree that gay rights has nothing to do the pedophilia. The problem is that there are many studies showing how an adult having sex with a child is detrimental to the child. Here are a few: http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/014521349290011F, http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1080/00223980109603677#.VIPGBdKoq-0, http://psycnet.apa.org/journals/bul/99/1/66/. Can the same be said of gay sex with two consenting adults? (I provided links, so I would expect some in return)
No, it's by the definition you used twice in the OP. Your definition of homosexuality imposes no age limit. And by your own definition, if they've never had or desired sex with a female they're all homosexuals. No I do not agree with that, but it has no bearing on anything I've said here. The problem with such studies being, of course, that said detriment is arguably a consequence of the same social stigmatization as was formerly experienced by homosexuals. It can be said for any sex outside of marriage - which of course is a heterosexual union.
Re-read the third paragraph No, you didn't read it correctly. I said sexual orientation was about who you don't desire, only about how you do desire. If don't desire men nor women, it does not make you a homosexual. Unless you can show some study that this could be true, I'm going to say you're just claiming a slippery slope. If sex outside of marriage is harmful, then you must be for same-sex marriages since that would eliminate the harm.
No need of that. Yes I did. If you meant to define homosexuality in such a manner that my inference would be incorrect, the failure is entirely your own; but of course you'd have to employ a non-standard definition to avoid such failure anyway. What the hell do I care? Alas, Rule 2 prohibits an appropriate response.
You do understand that someone can be a homosexual AND a pedophile, just as a heterosexual can be heterosexual AND a pedophile right? - - - Updated - - - Well they are a pedophile, but if they are also attracted to the opposite sex they are heterosexual, just as if someone who is only attracted to the same sex is a homosexual. Someone can be BOTH a heterosexual and pedophile just as someone can be a homosexual and a pedophile.
Because you seem to be the type that is only concerned by the homosexual label as if you were trying to correlate the two together. The fact of the matter is it doesn't matter if you are homosexual or heterosexual, the fact someone is a pedophile is an entirely different category on its own regardless if someone is heterosexual or homosexual.
Your perceptual deficiency is no excuse for wasting my time with retarded questions. Murder and calumny are in "entirely different categories" as well. That hardly means they don't share a significant common element.
Sorry but when you make ignorant comments, expect to be called out on them. So when a heterosexual has sex with a child of the opposite sex, do you label them heterosexual? And what is the common element of a heterosexual pedophile?
congratulations on a well thought post which clearly displays your agenda and opinion. Despite having never attended medical school, I'm late for surgery as I have a bypass surgery I must go perform. I think I am so therefor I must be
Oh, I do. The vast majority of the time, however, people do what you've just done: raise retarded objections to perfectly factual statements. The first question is stupid, and the second is incoherent.
No, what is stupid is trying to connect homosexuality and pedophilia as you have done. Now answer the question, why don't you try to connect heterosexuality and pedophilia when a heterosexual does it?
Intellectual honesty? Or don't...and prove the point. Homophobes try to connect homosexuality with pedophilia if they can find a case of homosexual pedophilia.... but do NOT connect heterosexuality with pedophilia despite the majority of cases being adult males with female children. So it's not about the truth.....just hatred of homosexuals.
Ah, here we have "there's no such thing as a heterosexual virgin" himself. How's the denial therapy coming along? Is it working for you yet?