Where did the term, Fully God and fully man come from? Could this statement be accurate? Let me explain. Jesus, who has the 'title' fully God and fully man, was The Son of God Most High. If Jesus had the chromosomes of His mother and yet had the chromosomes of His Father, that would make Him half man and half God.
These are 2 other comments I have received while on this walk with Christ. #1 - How was it known that the tree of knowledge in the Garden of Eden, was an 'apple tree' when the Holy Bible does not mention what kind of tree it was? And #2 - Why is it always portrayed that there were 3 wise men of the East that went and followed the Star, when the Holy Bible does not give the number of how many wise men there were?
If I recall correctly, the Council of Ephesus defined the hypostatic union of God and man in the person of Christ. You have to understand that the church didn't hold councils and proclaim teachings unless there was a need to. Usually a dispute would occur, which required bishops to meet and hammer the issue out with the understanding that the Holy Spirit prevents an ecumenical council from doctrinal error. Many people wondered about the precise nature of Jesus. It wasn't consideeed correct to say that Jesus is "half God, half man." Rather, the council determined he is "fully God, fully man." God, in the Second Person of His divinity, became fully human.
There is no mention of the fruit's exact type. Apple is just tradition. The number three was chosen because three gifts are given in the story.
