Why did the TARP bailout go to banks to help with troubled mortgages, but not to the people who were having trouble paying those mortgages?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_Affordable_Refinance_Program http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_Affordable_Modification_Program
Pathetic, TARP has already paid off the entire value of 7 million homes, but for the home owner here is a complicated program to give you what amounts to 3% assistance with your monthly mortgage. Simply pathetic.
america would have literally collapsed if we didn't bail out the banks. we needed to get them operating again. but i agree, we could have helped home-owners more.
Why do you believe this lie? The banks took the money and pocketed it. Rather than loaned it out. Wasn't the argument that without infusion of capital Banks couldn't make loans? But they are originating no more or no less loans than if they didn't ttake TARP. They just wanted to make their profitability look better. You've been duped.
About $418 billion. My point isn't how much but to where. Why didn't it go through people for mortgage relief FIRST, thus to banks, then back to the government? Instead of go to make Banks look profitable, then simply returned to the US? Understand?
