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Why was George Zimmerman allowed a gun?

Discussion in 'Law & Justice' started by Aleksander Ulyanov, Dec 10, 2013.

  1. Aleksander Ulyanov

    Aleksander Ulyanov Well-Known Member

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    Much as I'd like to derail the other thread on this I'll just ask the REAL question the Zimmerman story raises. George Zimmerman was demonstrably and without doubt a loose cannon and very likely to kill somebody if he kept on doing what he had been doing. Why was he allowed to? Why do we not only seemingly ENCOURAGE psychotic cop wannabe bullies to roam our neighborhoods but go out of our way to ARM them?
     
    Aleksander Ulyanov, Dec 10, 2013
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  2. Gatewood

    Gatewood Well-Known Member

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    Not enough specifics in your thread starter. Do you mean why was Zimmerman allowed to possess and carry again AFTER his famous trial . . . or do you mean why was he ever allowed to possess and carry at all . . . even before the shooting and his subsequent trial?
     
    Gatewood, Dec 10, 2013
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  3. Hoosier8

    Hoosier8 Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    It would seem he is not a felon or been deemed mentally unfit so that would be my guess.
     
    Hoosier8, Dec 11, 2013
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  4. Steady Pie

    Steady Pie Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Because the government had no evidence he intended to use his firearm in a coercive way.
     
    Steady Pie, Dec 12, 2013
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  5. Libertarianforlife

    Libertarianforlife Well-Known Member

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    Because he had not, and has not, used a gun illegally or been found guilty in a court of law of any law that would make him lose is right to own and carry a gun.
     
    Libertarianforlife, Dec 16, 2013
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