drunk women

Discussion in 'Women's Rights' started by JavisBeason, Dec 2, 2012.

  1. JavisBeason

    JavisBeason New Member

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    why is it a drunk woman can be held accountable for driving (even if they are blackout drunk or high and don't remember making the decision to get behind the wheel)

    but if she's has SEX while drunk, it's someone else's fault?

    by the faulty "if she's drunk, it's daterape" logic.... if I buy a girl some drinks at a bar, but ultimately strike out, and she drives home, gets pulled over and is deemed too drunk to drive.... do I get arrested for drunk driving since I bought her the drinks?

    My simple question that will be dismissed as mysogonistic or sexist is this.... why are women held accountable for drunk decisions when they drink and drive, yet are deemed "too impaired" to be able to mean it when they agree to sex while drunk.
     
  2. SFJEFF

    SFJEFF New Member

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    If you knowingly have sex with any person when they are not capable of making an informed decision- such as for instance- when they have blacked out- then you very well may be guitly of rape.

    Easy answer- don't have sex with someone who is too drunk to drive.
     
  3. JavisBeason

    JavisBeason New Member

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    they would still be arrested for DWI if they drove while that intoxicated and held accountable....why is it now ONLY the guy's fault when there is sex?

    so what if the guy is "too drunk to drive" but a girl has sex with him.... can that be considered date rape.


    if you make poor choices while drunk (like drive cars, or have sex with people you wouldn't normally have sex with), here's an idea.... don't drink. That decision is on you, whether you're male or female.
     
  4. Skeptical Heretic

    Skeptical Heretic New Member

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    Actually if I remember right if you are the person who works in a bar and you know they are driving you are held aaccountable but I may be wrong here so if someone else knows more about this then please correct me.

    Though the simple reason is in the former she chose to drink while knowing she would have to drive, in the latter the person is taking advantage of a person who is not able to make sound decisions (usually if they are too drunk to know what they are consenting to) and is by my understanding considered rape.

    No because that is not a consenting agreement if you buy her drinks and she consents in drinking them she is at fault for that. Though if this person does get drunk and then you decide to take advantage of them then you are at fault because you are making the decision while they are not able to.

    Simple because they can't make an agreement, I'll give an example if a child drives a car are they to blame or the person who left the keys unattended. If an adult has sex with them who is to blame the adult for taking advantage of the child or the child for agreeing to have sex with them. Not the best example but it's the best comparison I can make.
     
  5. RPA1

    RPA1 Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Get a breathalyzer and have her 'blow' it, then get a read-out of her blood-alcohol level. I think that's about all you can do. Head's up sex-toy industry...I'm givin' ya'll a freebie here....LOL
     
  6. Bowerbird

    Bowerbird Well-Known Member

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    Well if the "sex" is just masturbation then no one but her is accountable

    IF however there are two people involved (and I am not even stipulating males here) then two people have to take responsibility

    BTW have you any definitive proof beyond anecdotes and narrative fiction that males ARE held more accountable than females?
     
  7. Beast Mode

    Beast Mode New Member

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    Where is your case study that says that this is a statistical certainy? :blankstare:
     
  8. SFJEFF

    SFJEFF New Member

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    Let do a little thought experiment.

    You are out drinking with your buddy. You drink too much and he takes you home. You wake up the next morning to find out that he had sex with you. You don't remember it, but its clear that it happened.

    Would you consider that consensual sex?
     
  9. Makedde

    Makedde New Member Past Donor

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    What if the man is just as drunk as the woman, and they have sex? She can still claim she was raped.
     
  10. Makedde

    Makedde New Member Past Donor

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    What if the man is just as drunk as the woman, and they have sex? She can still claim she was raped.
     
  11. RPA1

    RPA1 Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    She can claim anything she wants to claim but, to get a judgement against the guy there needs to be credible evidence. Like signs she struggled, bruises, etc. along with any and all genetic material on her body that doesn't match hers. You know, a rape kit.
     
  12. Bowerbird

    Bowerbird Well-Known Member

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    Shakespeare said it best

    "Strong drink giveth the desire but taketh away the ability"

    A condition known as "brewers droop" seems certain parts of the male anatomy pass out before the rest does
     
  13. B.Larset

    B.Larset Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I got agood Buzz Bower and thats (*)(*)(*)(*)ing hot. Add me!
     
  14. Wolverine

    Wolverine New Member Past Donor

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    Because driving while intoxicated is a crime and being raped is not.
     
  15. JavisBeason

    JavisBeason New Member

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    my condition is called "whiskey dick" I can go on and on, I just won't finish.... I'm 37 and have YET (I know it will eventually happen) to have issues getting or keeping it up, even while drunk. Apparently, I'm lucky in that regard as many guys my age do have that issue I hear.

    Of course, I live a healthier lifestyle than most and look very young for my age. Not overweight either
     
  16. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    if a sober person takes advantage of someone drunk, it's date rape, if they are both drunk and both voluntarily have sex, it's just two drunk people having sex, many a people were born into this world due to alcohol, things always look different the morning after
     
  17. JeffLV

    JeffLV Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    This all depends on your jurisdiction for the exact definitions and criteria for rape, but generally speaking you have to knowingly and in your own right mind take advantage of a person who you reasonably believe is incapable of giving informed consent or resisting. In other words, if you're both drunk off your ass, then it's not rape - or you're both guilting of raping eachother :p. Long story short, such a case would not be prosecuted, although the DA would have discretion in making that determination that one party or other had more mental capacity and took advantage of the other, and they'd have to be able to prove it. Also, just because you're drunk does not mean you're incapable of resisting. It depends on how drunk you are.

    As for the analogy of the OP, if a person is drunk and driving that's their own problem. If they're drunk and have sex, that's also their own problem - they willingly put themselves in a dangerous position. But that doesn't mean that gives you or anyone eles the right to take advantage. The difference here is that the woman drinking and driving is a crime that puts others at risk, while her getting raped is not a crime that harms others... rather it is YOU (or the perpetrator) that is harming and taking advantage of her.
     

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