Slovakia: the EU's best kept secret.

+1, ................

 

Yeah, maybe you can help. I had never given much thought about Slovakia and Hungary, until I learnt that Slovakia revised its language law in 2009 and introduced a criminal style financial penulty if someone prints a business document in Hungarian. This law is unique in the EU. This caught my attention. Why does Slovakia have the LEGISLATIVE need to needle its Hungarian population?

Also, Slovakian law enforcement and other racist groups made the news that they celebrate Trianon day as some victory day, and that these celebration parties are not organized in Slovak cities but in Hungarian villages alongside the Hungarian border. Trianon may be a victory for Slovaks, but why do Slovaks choose to party about it in Hungarian villages?

These 2 things (amongst others) started me to think that Slovakia is a racist neo-nazi state. I am surprised that you say there are no significant conflicts between Slovaks and Hungarians in Slovakia.

And how do they get on with their lives in Slovakia when they are liable to pay a penulty when using the Hungarian language? From all indications, Slovakia has a LOT more problems than just the Gypsies.

 

The law states that certain documents (those used by state organs and used with state organs) and public billboards and announcements have to be in Slovak. It does not ban other languages as long as Slovak alternative is present. It also applies to all foreign languages equally (with the exception of Czech in some cases, because it is so similar to Slovak that it can be understood). European Union has sanctioned this law as not in conflict with its principles. A warning and a time period to make things right must be issued before it comes to the financial penalty. I dont think the law is going to affect ordinary people in any way.

I do think this regulation is sometimes over the top, as I am no fan of excessive bureaucracy. I also do think you are overreacting, because it is not racist (where does it mention race?) nor extremist. The rationale for the law is to ensure that public documents and announcements can be understood by those who speak only state language.

I have no heard about any celebrations by law enforcement. Ultra-nationalist groups want exposure, thats why they aim their controversial activities towards border. But once again, it is a sporadic activity by a tiny minority and most people dont care and laugh at them, which includes Slovaks and Hungarians.

 

I agree with you that such bureaucracy is excessive. Also, I guess the rationale seems reasonable at its face value.

But when an organization/state goes to such extents to test the limits of acceptability, I must wonder what the motivation is to enact such a law.

Let me guess, Slovakian authorities have now their demand fulfilled that every government business is printed in Slovakian, but they would refuse a request to subprint those government forms in Hungarian, like we Americans subprint New York forms in Spanish (for driver licenses as an example).

And for public billboards/announcements, for example, what if a Hungarian of Slovakia wants to put up a note on a shopwindow board that she is opening a dog washing business in her garage to wash your dog if you want to? Sure, the Hungarian only note will not get her Slovak customers, but why should she be punished for that?

So, isn't this law an indication that the state of Slovakia is interested in maintaining an internal tension between its Slovak and Hungarian population?

 

revenge for 100s years of brutal oppression? no body here says that Slovakians are the angels...

 

how much political power did they(Slavs) have?

 

How much? Enough to triple their population compared to Hungarian demography at the time. How much power Hungarians have in Slovakia today? Enough to lose 50 % of Hungarians there.

Also, an ultra-nationalist state policy in the context of the nationalist 19th century is very different to an anti-Hungarian state legislation of the 21st century.

 

this fact of the Slavic "demographic revenge" shows that they(Slavs) did have any political power inside of your nice state Hungary

your oppression was much longer and worse then current Slovakian one

 

How does this make sense? How does an increasing demography show a lack of political power? Shouldn't it be the opposite, if there is any correlation in the 19th century?

Your Hungarian oppression theory is pure propaganda. Don't fall for it.

 

it does but i dont have time to you re-education . Hungarian oppression is a fact, not propaganda. and main reason why Austria-Hungary would not become Austria-Hungary-"Slaviania"