Question: Does life start at birth or conception?

Discussion in 'Abortion' started by RobertTheBruce, Jan 28, 2013.

  1. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    You referring to rape? No, that's another one of those extraordinary circumstances I was referring to.
     
  2. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    No, I was referring to this """"""" I don't believe a fetus should be made to suffer for choices that someone else made,"""

    OK, what do you mean by that? That it shouldn't be aborted? If that's a "yes, it shouldn't be aborted"..." then you believe women should be forced to give birth.


    And , why would the fetus resulting from a rape be different from a fetus resulting from consensual sex?

    In either circumstances the fetus is the same, the procedure (abortion) is the same.
     
  3. Giftedone

    Giftedone Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I would contend that most of the objective evidence would support somewhere in between and that seems to be where a significant percentage of the science community lies.
     
  4. LibertarianFTW

    LibertarianFTW Well-Known Member

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    The morning after pill is not an abortion pill. It is an emergency contraceptive.
     
  5. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    It means exactly what it says. And you really do need the whole quote, else it becomes too out of context,
    "I don't believe a fetus should be made to suffer for choices..someone else made, except for in extraordinary circumstances (Life of..mother being 1)."

    Should fetus be aborted? Should mother be forced to give birth?
    My position, again, is that abortion should be perfectly acceptable within 7-9 weeks of conception, since, scientifically speaking, there is little chance the fetus will experience any suffering during this time if aborted. Beyond this point, for me it depends on the circumstances as to if a fetus should be aborted. Mostly, for me, it depends upon who, if anyone, is at fault for the situation.

    To take it from one extreme to the other, if for instance we've entered late into the third trimester, the sex producing the fetus was consensual, the mother knew about the pregnancy and had access to an abortion clinic within the first 7-9 weeks, and chose not to pursue getting an abortion then, I do not then see it as justifiable for an abortion to be performed. And as such, I would not see it as unjustifiable to fine the mother after the fact, or even issue a light jail sentence. As for doctors who assist with the abortion, that is a little more murky for me and in fact,...

    The main point I'm making here is that after 7-9 weeks and prior to the actual birth, the whole issue of abortion itself becomes extremely murky,
    it is not clear-cut, and one should not expect there to exist clear-cut answers.

    Out of curiosity, what is your opinion of the following story?
    http://www.lifesitenews.com/news/wo...two-days-before-due-date-has-sentence-reduced

    The fetus resulting from rape would not be different from the fetus produced from consensual sex, nor would the abortion be different,
    but exactly who would be at fault would be different. In this case, it would not be the mother. Does that make it good to force a fetus to suffer,
    no, as the situation is still not the fault of the fetus (willfully speaking). But at the same time it wouldn't be OK to force the mother to undergo pain and suffering as the situation isn't exactly her fault either.

    In my original post I gave an example of a man forcibly handcuffing himself to another person.
    My argument was that it would not be justifiable for this man to inflict death on the victim in order to separate them.
    But suppose it is some 3rd party who handcuffs the two together. If there are no other ways for the two to then be separated,
    other than for one to inflict pain and or death on the other, then we have ourselves a situation in which there is no best solution,
    as no matter which choices the two make, either one or two people, who are not at all at fault for the circumstances will end up suffering and or dying.

    Sometimes that's just the way the cookie crumbles in life.
    Obviously, it would be much better for all involved if the two were simply never handcuffed together.
    To tie that back to abortion, ie: the rape was prevented, the mother made it to an abortion clinic within the 7-9 weeks, contraception was used.
    But if such is not the case, with no justifications outweighing any other, the one remaining justification of survival of the fittest would again apply.
    Which, going back to abortion again, is usually the mother.
    Beyond that, anyone acting as this 3rd party (rapists, and people who actively hinder the use of early abortion and or contraception) should be punished, such as to disincentivise such lose-lose situations from cropping up in the future.

    -Meta
     
  6. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    I read the story you gave the link to and it had nothing to do with abortion, I consider it murder.


    I do not agree at all with a 7-9 week limit.

    And I can't decipher why you think an abortion due to rape is OK but not abortion due to consensual sex....maybe if ya left out the handcuffs :).
     
  7. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    OK then, at what point between the 7-9 week point and the actual birth does it become murder as opposed to abortion in your opinion?
    And what is your justification for using that point as opposed to any other?

    To clarify, I do not think a latter term abortion due to rape (or other 3rd party interference) is "OK", but I do believe it is justifiable (from mother's pov).
    It is one of those cases in which no matter what choices get made after the fact, someone innocent is going to end up suffering either way.

    -Meta
     
  8. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    I think the confusion is coming in because you think the limit is 7-9 weeks and it's 23-24 weeks.

    And most women don't wait that long.


    As to pregnancy due to rape I am not/have not been addressing late term abortions in cases of rape.

    Maybe you could answer my question by stating why you believe a legal abortion due to rape is different from a legal abortion due to consensual sex because.... ???
     
  9. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Actually, I never stated that the limit should be 7-9 weeks. What I said was that prior to the 7-9 week point, there should be no objection to a woman getting an abortion, due to the fetus's inability to feel pain and or lack of brain-waves.

    No, they do not. The vast majority of abortions occur within the first trimester, <12 weeks from conception.
    Only a very small amount happen in the 13-28 week period, and the number that occur during the third trimester is miniscule.

    But I have.

    First of all, legality should not be used as justification for something in which the thing we are trying to determine is whether something should be legal.

    Second, I've already stated that there is no difference between an abortion due to rape and one due to consensual sex, other than who is at fault.
    If it was due to consensual sex, then the mother bears some responsibility. If it was due to rape, then the same cannot be said,
    and we simply have a lose-lose situation in which someone innocent is going to end up suffering no matter what happens.
    And again, if abortion occurs before 7-9 week period, I believe its always justifiable from mother's pov, regardless of whether it was the result of rape or not.

    So, I've answered your question, can you answer mine?
    At what point between the 7-9 week point and the actual birth does it become murder as opposed to abortion in your opinion?
    Is it the 23-24 week period? If so, then what is your justification for using that point?

    -Meta
     
  10. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    Whatever the law says, I think it's 23-26 weeks.. I could google the scientific reasoning behind this but it's been discussed in here forever...

    after the legal limit, it's murder.
     
  11. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Perhaps that is what the law says, but like I said, legality should not be used as justification for something in which the thing we are trying to determine is whether something should be legal. To do such is to commit a logical fallacy: Appeal to Law.

    Note; this isn't necessarily to say that the current law is wrong on the matter, or that the justification the law is based on is not acceptable, but the mere fact of something being legal or illegal is not justification in and of itself especially when the conversation is over whether something should be legal.

    What I want to know is your personal justification for why the abortion cutoff line, scientifically, should be placed at any particular spot.

    -Meta
     
  12. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    That's when a fetus becomes viable.

    I'm sure you can google Roe v Wade, too.
     
  13. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I can Google the law, but I cannot Google your personal views and justifications.
    And you yourself shouldn't have to Google them if they are truly your own beliefs.
     
  14. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    Okey dokey then, here's my personal belief. I am NOT a scientist/doctor/biologist ( and neither are you)...I will take their word for when a fetus is viable.
    My (and YOUR) personal beliefs won't, and shouldn't, change a thing...
     
  15. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Actually,...you don't know what I am. Feel free to speak for yourself all you want, but I actually happen to be a scientist, contrary to your claim.



    ...Granted, I don't study fetuses professionally,
    but my point here is that you shouldn't just go around making such assumptions about people, especially people you don't know.

    I do not believe that the time at which a fetus becomes viable was ever a point in contention.

    Rather, the question was regarding the point at which an abortion would turn into "murder".

    I agree with you, that after viability, 23-26 weeks, baring any interference from a "3rd party", the mother has no excuse for aborting the child.
    In cases of rape or life of mother I personally might still see justification depending upon the circumstances.

    So this is good, we now have what I believe to be a reasonable lower bound, pain perception and brain activity, below which all abortion is acceptable,
    and we have moved the upper bound in a bit from birth down to viability, above which most abortion is unacceptable.
    Between those two points however, the issue is still murky for me.

    For instance, mother may have an excuse if there is a chance the baby wont survive to viability.
    Once viability is reached, its obvious this excuse no longer applies. My next question to you is this:
    If a fetus has reached viability, is it OK for the mother to induce a preterm birth,
    even if this would mean the child had a lower chance of survival?

    Note that its not quite the same as an abortion if the child has a chance of survival...

    But our aggregate personal beliefs should, supposing we live in a democracy.

    The reason I ask for your personal belief though, as opposed to what some law says, is to understand the way you think,...

    [ramble]
    ...what makes you think the way you do, take the positions you do? Is there some flaw in your reasoning which I can point out?
    Such as your only moral justification for something being that it is legal?...or is there some fact or a consideration you have made and that I have not which if I understood might cause me to reexamine or even change my own views? This sort of understanding I can rarely get from a law, rather I must examine the personal feelings and views which support the different positions.
    [/ramble]

    -Meta
     
  16. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    You take yourself and the whole issue waaaayyy too seriously...I think it's perfectly OK for a woman to have a legal abortion and there is NO difference whether she was raped or not., the procedure is the same in both cases...

    And you don't write like a scientist...it's rather rambling....and has no point that I (being a humble non-scientist) can discern.
     
  17. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Well it is a serious issue. Though I doubt I take anything quite as seriously as you seem to think I do.
    I simply enjoy being precise and accurate about things......or as precise and accurate as I can be...

    And I think know that it is a logical fallacy to justify something based purely on its legality.

    As I've said repeatedly.

    So...I noticed you seem to have avoided my question....
    If a fetus has reached viability, is it OK, in your personal opinion, for the mother to induce a preterm birth,
    even if doing so would mean the child had a lower chance of survival?


    -Meta
     
  18. Pasithea

    Pasithea Banned at Members Request Past Donor

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    I'd love to see your certifications to back up this claim that you are in fact a Scientist.
     
  19. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    You know...just to demonstrate how silly this topic is as well as how silly this argument is here are a few FACTS.

    LIFE....exists BEFORE an Human Egg Cell is even Fertilized by a Sperm Cell.

    Both the Egg and Sperm Cells are INDEPENDENT LIFE FORMS and although these cells are Human in origin they cannot be classified as a HUMAN BEING either independently or together as a Fertilized Egg.

    As I have posted before a Living Human Being is classified as a Multi-Cellular Multi-Species Biomechanical Construct and that along with Billions of various completely independently classified groups of Human Cells which serve specific purposes both individually and as a group to enable the entire Biomechanical Construct to live and have abilities but as well a MULTITUDE OF DIFFERENT NON-HUMAN SPECIES exist and MUST EXIST as part of a Human Being in order for a Human Being to live, develop and survive.

    As example....with a variety of Bacterial Species which exist in a SYMBIOTIC RELATIONSHIP within and as a part of a Human Beings Biomechanical Construct in the Intestinal System and many other systems and such species of Bacteria MUST exist in a Fetus even to allow Fetal Development as without these other Life Forms Humans could NOT REPRODUCE as a Fetus would die early on in the pregnancy without them.

    So the FACT is that a LIVING HUMAN BEING exists as MORE THAN ONE SPECIES....as if only Human Cells were present a Human Being could neither live nor could it even EXIST.

    THIS IS A FACT THAT DICTATES THE FOLLOWING.

    Since a Fertilized Human Egg Cell on it's own and without the introduction of a large number of various Species of Life Forms with completely different Genomes than that of Human Cells CAN NEVER DEVELOP INTO A HUMAN BEING..... a Fertilized Human Egg Cell CAN NOT BE CLASSIFIED AS A HUMAN BEING.

    This is a simple truth that most people simply either don't know or don't understand.

    AboveAlpha.
     
  20. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    What exactly do you want? A facsimile of one of my degrees? A picture? Proof of my employment?
    I don't usually share personal information with strangers on the internet, but since the tail end of the cat is already out of the bag,
    I might make an exception this time, if you'd be willing to show me a picture of your high-school diploma first.

    And yeah, I know I told Fox not to make assumptions about people, so as not to be a hypocrite;
    you do have a high-school diploma,...am I wrong?

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_scientist

    -Meta
     
  21. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    I haven't avoided your question. Several posts ago , using your link to a story of a woman killing her baby two days before her due date I stated I thought it was murder...you , being an observant scientist and all , should've seen that.



    I stated , "I think it's perfectly OK for a woman to have a legal abortion """

    And you respond,
    """And I think know that it is a logical fallacy to justify something based purely on its legality.""


    Which has nothing to do with , "I think it's perfectly OK for a woman to have a legal abortion """

    You think I can't have an opinion because it's a "logical fallacy" ?

    Then why ask anyone about their opinion on anything. ?

    Your comments on rape are confusing because of you use of the word "guilt" which has nothing to do with a woman getting an abortion due to rape.
    I guess when I saw "guilt" introduced I quit reading...
     
  22. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    Consistent brain wave activity starts at week 25 of gestation. The rationale for this starting point is based on our definition of death. The definition of death is not disputed, and is considered the time when electroencephalography (EEG) activity ceases. EEG measures brain activity and must demonstrate regular wave patterns to be considered valid. Therefore, by this rule the onset of life would be the time when fetal brain activity begins to exhibit regular wave patterns, which occurs fairly consistently around week 25. Previous to that time, the EEG only shows small bursts of activity without sustained firing of neurons.

    A fetus cannot feel pain until at least 24 weeks, the required 'wiring' is simply not complete enough to pass the nerve messages to the brain, add to that -that pain is also more than just a physical thing it also requires a physiological knowledge of what pain is.. It would be like me asking you to describe how it feels to be strangled when you have never experienced it. Studies that say fetal pain can be felt at 20 weeks have been refuted but organizations such as Britain’s Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists and the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists - http://jama.jamanetwork.com/article.aspx?articleid=201429

    The sense is found in the pro-lifer ideology of 'person at conception' this alludes to the right to life of a fertilized ovum .. if, as pro-lifers say, that a fertilized ovum is a 'person' then it's right to life is no different from yours or mine and as such other rights must also be included, not just the ones that offer support to the pro-life ideology but also ones that would refute.
    I believe that the right to life is not the paramount right that humans have, after all that right can be removed by a higher authority in cases of executions, war and self-defence .. one right that has NEVER been over ruled is the right of body autonomy, there is no law in existence in the US that allows a person to be forced to allow their body to be used without their consent, which moves me onto your comment about the result of choices .. this I assume alludes to the consent to sex = consent to pregnancy thinking, but I'm afraid this is simply not the case.

    Legally consent is seen as 1) n. a voluntary agreement to another's proposition. 2) v. to voluntarily agree to an act or proposal of another, which may range from contracts to sexual relations. - http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/consent

    This does not apply to pregnancy, unless it can be proven that a woman voluntary agreed to remain pregnant in the unlikely event of it happening from sexual intercourse, at best it would create a 'he said', 'she said' argument .. BTW I say unlikely event of it happening as there is a less that 9% risk of a woman becoming pregnant from a single act of unprotected sexual intercourse, and no one is expected to suffer injury from a risk taken.

    There is also implied consent legally seen as n. consent when surrounding circumstances exist which would lead a reasonable person to believe that this consent had been given, although no direct, express or explicit words of agreement had been uttered. Examples: a) a "contract" based on the fact that one person has been doing a particular thing and the other person expects him/her to continue; b) the defense in "date rape" cases in which there is a claim of assumed consent due to absence of protest or a belief that "no" really meant "yes," "maybe" or "later." - http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/implied+consent

    now this would seem to be a strong case for consent to sex is implied consent to pregnancy, however on closer scrutiny it is not. Implied consent is reliant on the acquiescence of the female, the second she seeks an abortion she is explicitly saying 'no' to the pregnancy at that point implied consent is moot. In legal terms no means no.

    Furthermore consent is non-transferable unless the person who gave the original consent agrees to the transfer, under the 'person at conception' ideology there is a separate, individual 'person' which requires either specific consent or transferred consent to use a females body in order to sustain it's life and even if there were a contract this does not force the woman to continue the pregnancy. I refer to McFall vs Shimp - http://www.ucs.louisiana.edu/~ras2777/judpol/mcfall.html - In it's findings the court made the following comments -

    The common law has consistently held to a rule which provides that one human being is under no legal compulsion to give aid or to take action to save that human being or to rescue. .. Our society, contrary to many others, has as its first principle, the respect for the individual, and that society and government exist to protect the individual from being invaded and hurt by another. .. For our law to compel the defendant to submit to an intrusion of his body would change the very concept and principle upon which our society is founded. To do so would defeat the sanctity of the individual, and would impose a rule which would know no limits, and one could not imagine where the line would be drawn.

    While the decision by the woman to abort may be morally indefensible (I disagree, but that is another debate) there is no legal precedence that can force her to remain pregnant. A persons moral perspective does not mean that their desires can be forced upon others.

    See above re the consent to sex, consent to pregnancy reply.

    Yet a fetus prior to 25 weeks is not self-aware, in fact even a newborn is not self-aware . .so the only other consideration is that it is alive and that applies to many things including non-human things.

    no you won't and that is because, as you stated in earlier, is because plants, as far as we are aware, or not self-aware, but neither is a fetus .. as above a newborn is not self-aware either.

    Yep they are because they can feel pain and fear, a fetus prior to 25 weeks cannot .. hence why the Roe ruling got it about right with it's progressive restrictions.

    no he doesn't however is that because he has other avenues that could be used in order to free himself from the situation without the need for deadly force, and would the same remain true if the other person starting beating him, would he not then be able to defend himself up to and including the use of deadly force if required?

    That still does not allow the other person to use more force than is required to free themselves, in this case there is no requirement for deadly force as the handcuffs can be removed by other methods, and although initially the person he hand cuffed himself to would be the victim, if that person were to start beating him, he can defend himself. The victim cam only use as much force as is deemed required to end the imprisonment (ie handcuffed).

    Agreed, however if the attacker were not willing to undergo those options, and forcibly tried to restrain the victim from seeking those options the victim can use force in order to attain their release.

    Thing is currently the states recognize three distinct scenarios where deadly force can be used.

    1. when one is threatened with death
    2. when one is threatened with a serious bodily injury (defined as damage or loss of use of an organ or limb for a protracted period of time, such as six weeks)
    3. the invasion of one's liberty, such as in kidnaping, rape, or slavery

    unconsented pregnancy meets the requirements of numbers 2 and 3. Given the quantity and quality of the effects of a fetus on a woman's body and liberty, if a woman does not consent, that fetus is massively harming her.
     
  23. Pasithea

    Pasithea Banned at Members Request Past Donor

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    I'm not the one sitting here making claims that I know I can't or won't back up on the Internet due to privacy reasons.

    That would be you.
     
  24. Giftedone

    Giftedone Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I am jumping in here so forgive me if I misrepresent anyone's position.

    First off - that one is a scientist matters not. Even if one is a scientist in an area of subject matter expertise such as (Developmental biology or Taxonomy if one talking beginning of life or what is a human) "Neurobiology if one is talking when an organism can feel pain" and so on.

    It is still and appeal to authority "unless" that authority gives reasons/evidence/proof that back up his or her claim.

    I am both scientist and work in the area of applied microbiology. All this means is that I can understand the difference between what is good evidence and what is not a little better because I deal with this on a daily basis.

    That's it.

    If I want to make a claim (when does that organism feel pain) then I am obligated to provide some evidence that is not fallacy. "The law says so or some Ebryologist or expert said so" is clearly fallacy unless the claim is backed up by reasons that prove or at least make a good case for the truth of the claim.

    For example:

    This article is titled: Fetal Pain - A Systematic Multidisciplinary Review of the Evidence from the Journal of the American Medical Association.

    http://jama.jamanetwork.com/article.aspx?articleid=201429

    Here we have an "opinion" from experts (capacity for functional pain probably does not exist until 29-30 weeks) but this opinion is back up by reasons why this opinion is valid.

    Clearly, from what experts devoted to this area of research know, it is not possible for a fetus to feel pain prior to the development of certain neural connections (thalamocortical connections) which do not appear until 23 weeks. Hence, the 23 week cutoff.
     
  25. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    """""""Evidence Synthesis Pain perception requires conscious recognition or awareness of a noxious stimulus. Neither withdrawal reflexes nor hormonal stress responses to invasive procedures prove the existence of fetal pain, because they can be elicited by nonpainful stimuli and occur without conscious cortical processing. Fetal awareness of noxious stimuli requires functional thalamocortical connections. Thalamocortical fibers begin appearing between 23 to 30 weeks&#8217; gestational age, while electroencephalography suggests the capacity for functional pain perception in preterm neonates probably does not exist before 29 or 30 weeks."""""""""



    Thanks for posting that...it was just on the tip of my tongue !

    ;)
     

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