Question: Does life start at birth or conception?

Discussion in 'Abortion' started by RobertTheBruce, Jan 28, 2013.

  1. Pasithea

    Pasithea Banned at Members Request Past Donor

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    Don't you just love semantics? lmao
     
  2. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    I do know that, but it is an argument that pro-lifers use and so needs to be debunked.
     
  3. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    going to have to ask you to put this a little bit simpler because what you have written here has confused me.

    Fear of death is not the only justification for the use of deadly force in self-defence, currently the states recognize three clear justifications;

    1. when one is threatened with death
    2. when one is threatened with a serious bodily injury (defined as damage or loss of use of an organ or limb for a protracted period of time, such as six weeks)
    3. the invasion of one's liberty, such as in kidnaping, rape, or slavery

    your next sentence still alludes to consent to sex = consent to pregnancy and I still disagree that it does, every bit of research I have done only shows that when a woman continues with a pregnancy she is giving implied consent to the fetus to use her body to sustain its life.
    I really do urge you to read this contributory negligence I would quote it but it is under copywrite so I cannot legally do so, it really does explain how contributory negligence is not a valid argument in pregnancy and abortion.

    Legally when she gives birth .. however, I would agree to a compromise that once mental life is reached it could be said that she has consented to the fetus remaining.

    My answer would be it depends, there are many reason why a woman may not be able to get an abortion when she wishes .. though under the scenario you offered then I would say that she has consented to the pregnancy, however this does not legally mean she cannot get an abortion.

    In my opinion, none at all.
    What needs to be looked at is the actual number of women who would elect to abort after a certain time period, one can quite easily assume that a woman who carries a pregnancy passed 21 weeks in fact wants to be pregnant and give birth, as evidence to support this I turn to Canada where there are no restrictions on abortion at all, and yet we find in comparison to the US that their late term abortion rate is lower, this just does not equate to the pro-life fallacy that if all restriction on abortion were lifted it would result in more elective late term abortions.

    Yes, that would fall under self-defence .. an argument I use in favor of abortion :wink:

    Agreed, that point would be the mental life boundary, and I truly believe that if funding restrictions were removed then there would only be abortions after 12 weeks for life threats and fetal disabilities incompatible with life. .. I cannot prove that of course, but can point to Canada as an example.
     
  4. Beast Mode

    Beast Mode New Member

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  5. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    You didn't say pain could be perceived at 20 weeks (though it kind of looked like you did), but the study seems to leave that open to possibility.

    "...the psychological nature of pain presupposes the presence of functional thalamocortical circuitry required for conscious perception...

    ...No human studies have directly examined the development of thalamocortical circuits associated with pain perception. The developmental age at which thalamic pain fibers reach the cortex has been inferred from studies of other thalamocortical circuits, which may or may not develop at the same time as thalamic fibers mediating cortical perception of pain...

    ...A histological study of the visual pathway in 8 human fetuses, each at a different developmental age, concluded that thalamic projections reach the visual cortex at...(approximately 23-27 weeks’ gestational age)...A similar 7-fetus study found...1 specimen showing initial cortical plate penetration at...(24 weeks’ gestational age).24

    In a study of 8 human fetuses, mediodorsal thalamic afferents were first observed in the cortical plate at...(24 weeks’ gestational age).19 While connections between mediodorsal afferents and the anterior cingulate cortex25 may be relevant to pain perception,12,26 this study examined mediodorsal afferents to unspecified regions of the frontal cortex,19 which serves numerous functions unrelated to pain perception.19,27

    ...However, others have proposed that thalamocortical connections could also be established indirectly if thalamic afferents were to synapse on subplate neurons, which could synapse on cortical plate neurons....In contrast to direct thalamocortical fibers, which are not visible until almost the third trimester, thalamic afferents begin to reach the somatosensory subplate at...(20 weeks’ gestational age)16 and the visual subplate at 20 to 22 weeks’ gestational age.17 These afferents appear morphologically mature enough to synapse with subplate neurons,31 although no human study has shown that functional synapses exist between thalamic afferents and subplate neurons..."

    What this says to me is that the studies so far have not been focused on pain perception specifically, rather the results of other studies have been used to estimate how long it takes the circuitry (thalamic pain fibers in adult humans) to reach the cortex and facilitate the perception of pain.
    It says that the fibers likely take about 23-24 weeks, but then puts forth the possibility that thalamic afferents may be able to facilitate the perception without the fibers at as early as 20 weeks, but that no study has proven it yet. Hence 20-25 weeks.
    Looks to me like more research is needed before we have a more definitive answer.

    No, don't get the wrong idea, it's not that you didn't address everything I wrote,
    rather that you made a number of additional points that weren't really in response to what you were quoting.
    Speaking about the rights of an ovum for instance.

    All good information, but you didn't answer the question....:???:

    If a woman consents to sex, chooses not to use contraceptives, get's pregnant, knows that she is pregnant early on, has access to an abortion clinic early on, and is not hindered from getting, but rather chooses not to get an abortion, and waits 'till late term,.... has she consented to the pregnancy?

    So it would seem to appear then that according to Roe, a woman who waits while having options but choosing not to take them does implicitly consent to the ongoing pregnancy, but what do you think?

    ^"Page Restricted". But either way, that is still absurd.
    That without consciousness has no will, and that without will cannot make choices and cannot have "interests" (unless you're referring to the idiom).

    More importantly though, it is certainly the actions taken by people, who are not the fetus, which lead to the fetus's creation inside the womb.
    The fetus is created only as the result of the action of sex (or artificial fertilization). Without that, there is no fetus created in the womb.
    If the sex was consensual, then both partners have, through their actions, contributed to the creation of the fetus.

    And even if they did not intend to create the fetus, that does not change the fact that it was their actions that lead to its creation,
    just as the action of someone shooting into a ceiling is the cause of hitting anyone who might happen to get hit,
    regardless of whether it was the intention of the shooter to do so.

    Only if the sex was due to rape, or similar situation, might you be able to say that the woman's willful actions were not the cause or part of it,
    but in that case it would still be the actions of the rapist that created the fetus, not the fetus itself. If there is third party interference along the way,
    then it can be said that such a third party has contributed as well to the creation of the fetus.

    But the fetus can't create itself! (same thing for a fertilized ovum).

    Sorry, I don't follow what you're saying here.
    The first person isn't really the point of this example, and the focus of the question revolves more around the second and third.

    Maybe so, but then so too does a pregnant woman have options.

    Note: In addition to the point of implied consent thing, I'm making two key points here. (kept in separate analogies so as to keep them clear and somewhat relatable)

    1. Putting someone into a position in which they have no choice but to harm you in order to survive, intentionally or unintentionally,
    does not excuse you if you end up killing them to protect yourself.

    and

    2. A fetus does not need to get consent to exist within the womb, because it was not by its will that it got there.
    And the fact that it hasn't gotten consent should not by itself necessarily automatically give anyone the right to kill it.

    I think you misunderstand what an appeal to extremes actually means.
    If you disagree, take a look at your link, and explain to me exactly how my analogy fits that description.

    I believe my analogy to be a near 1 to 1 comparison for pregnancy resulting from rape.
    Change a few words around, and we can easily turn it into an analogue for consensual sex.
    The only real difference, in its current form, is that person three does not face the risk of any harm by doing nothing,
    not that we couldn't come up with a scenario in which that would be the case, but as it is, it's insufficient as an argument against abortion by itself,
    but I believe it illustrates point 2 (described above) perfectly. Wouldn't you agree?

    That may be even worse than basing arguments off of the written law.
    (appeal to nature) http://www.logicallyfallacious.com/index.php/logical-fallacies/37-appeal-to-nature

    -Meta
     
  6. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Read the link!..... -_-
     
  7. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    As I have posted a reflexive PAIN reaction means nothing without a Consciousness or Sentience to perceive it even if a Fetus or Body does.

    A Brain Dead Human Being's body will react to damage to the body in a reflexive action but their is no consciousness to perceive the pain.

    Same thing for a Fetus that has not begun Higher Brain Functions and even this is not full sentience and it starts about the second week into the 3rd Trimester.

    AboveAlpha
     
  8. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    "Question: Does life start at birth or conception?"

    I thought life started with Adam and Eve? ;)


    .
     
  9. FoxHastings

    FoxHastings Well-Known Member

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    :) Good point!

    Looks like somebody's god didn't think "life" starts at conception...he started it fully grown!!!!! :)
     
  10. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    Well....we know at an Atomic/Molecular Level that all existing species of Life on Earth evolved from a Single Celled Life Form.

    Now exactly HOW do we know this?

    We know it because of Viral DNA Encoding existing in all Genomes of all species of Life on Earth.

    BEFORE LIFE in the form of a Single Celled Animal existed on Earth there existed VIRUSES.

    Now a VIRUS IS NOT ALIVE!!! A Virus does not fit the criteria of what is life as a Virus cannot reproduce on it's own. As well the men who won the Nobel Prize for their work in Virology WON THE NOBEL IN THE CHEMISTRY CATEGORY NOT BIOLOGY.

    The reason they won the Nobel for their work in Virology in the Chemistry category is a VIRUS IS NOT ALIVE thus this is why they did not win in the Biology Category.

    A Virus SHOWS US....just how close the LIVING is to the NON-LIVING....as a Virus has DNA just like a Living Cell Does but unlike a Living Cell a Virus cannot reproduce on it's own as a Virus tricks a Living Cell into thinking it is Food or Oxygen and the Living Cell allows it inside the cell.

    The Virus then reprograms the Living Cells Genome by the Virus Encoding it's own DNA into the Genome of the Living Cell. This causes the Living Cell to use it's own selves raw material to produce many, many Virus to the point so many exist within the Cell the Cell Membrane ruptures and explodes throwing the Virus inside it all over in a manner that helps the Virus spread to other Living Cells.

    Anyways....we have mapped THOUSANDS of Life Forms Genomes including our Own as the Human Genome Mapping Project finished mapping the Human Genome Years ago.....and when we compare all existing fully mapped Species Genomes we find one single thing in COMMON.

    Now every species Genome has a multitude of Viral DNA encoding within them and Humans have Millions of such Viral DNA Encoding but what we found is ALL SPECIES HAVE ONE SPECIFIC VIRAL DNA ENCODING EXISTING WITH THEM.

    So...the ONLY way that all species Genomes could have one identical Viral DNA Encoding within ALL of them is if all Species EVOLVED from a Single Celled Organism which had been infected by a Virus and when it reproduced by Mitosis at least one half survived and this now Single Celled Organism which had it's Genome Encoded with Viral DNA passed this Viral Encoding down to ALL SPECIES OF LIFE AS LIFE EVOLVED FROM IT!!!

    There is no other way this could have happened.

    And just for good measure....due to the size of the Universe it is literally a MATHEMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY for Earth to be the only Planet with Life....so Life could have begun somewhere else in the Universe a LONG TIME AGO...in a Galaxy Far...Far...AWAY!!!

    AboveAlpha
     
  11. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    The only study I know of that alludes to fetal pain perception as early as 20 weeks is one conducted by Dr. Kanwaljeet Annad, which has been roundly disputed by the majority of subject specialist. In order to get a sound basis of this issue one has to first and foremost have an understand of what pain is, The most commonly accepted definition is - "An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of
    such damage. ... Activity induced in the nociceptor and nociceptive pathways by a noxious stimulus is not pain, which is always a psychological state, even though we may well appreciate that pain most often has a proximate
    physical cause.


    The Institute of Medicine Committee on Pain, Disability, and Chronic Illness Behavior reported “the experience of pain is more than a simple sensory process. It is a complex perception involving higher levels of the central nervous system, emotional states, and higher order mental processes.”

    Much of the above simply does not exist in a fetus prior to 24 weeks ... pain is foremost a psychological response, for example, if I were to ask you what it feels like to be strangled, unless you have experienced strangulation, then it is virtually impossible for you to tell me what it feels like. Pain is very much a learned process. What our bodies do when they encounter something that 'hurts' us is nerve pulses cause muscles to contract and react and as such drawing the body part away from the thing that is causing damage to tissue etc. ie it is a natural reaction.

    Ah, right, I see .. though the points I added I feel are related to the points you were making.

    There is not a simply yes or no answer to the question offered, there are many factors you simply have overlooked, which I tried to bring into your question. ... but your question begs the question of would a woman actually do all the things your have mentioned.

    I think that any woman who carries a pregnancy to that point is not a woman who would arbitrarily seek an abortion .. this just add weight to my point of creating a scenario that is almost never to happen. As far as what Roe does then that to me is the state enforcing it's decisions onto another person and in no way equates to her consenting to the ongoing pregnancy.

    The book is called "Breaking the Abortion Deadlock : From Choice to Consent" By Eileen McDonagh, perhaps you can find another online version of it .. I would advocate it's reading, even if you don't agree with it's conclusions.

    It is the courts that have implied intent on the part of the fetus, the restrictions they place imply that given a say the fetus would 'vote' to remain attached to the female regardless of the injuries caused, and in the end a pregnancy does only serve the interests of the fetus.

    I don't dispute that at all, what I do dispute is that a person is expected to suffer injury due to a risk taken and intrusion upon their autonomy without consent, and while the decision of the man and woman may have lead to the fertilization of the ova that does not imply that consent to the separate action of uterine implantation has been given.

    I will respond to the rest of your post later, as I really need to sleep now.
     
  12. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Just saying that proven intent may be an indicator of responsibility for a situation,
    but it is not necessary for responsibility to exist, as either implied consent and or negligence can act as substitutes.

    Agreed.

    It may be related, but that's not what I'm saying/asking.
    Its more like, (sex:known pregnancy) + consent not to get an abortion early = consent to latter term pregnancy

    I read the link, agree with most of what was written on page 43,
    but on page 44 it then talks about a fertilized ovum having intent when it implants and then inferring onto the oven the same conflated idea of intersts you were alluding to in your other post, which, again, is absurd.

    A fertilize ovum can no more intend to implant itself into a woman than a sheet of ice can intend to fall down a mountain,
    it is merely a natural biological process.

    The book appears to even acknowledge this, saying that the ovum can't have intentions because it has no consciousness, but then goes on to say that if the ovum did have consciousness (mental life) and could intend things, that it could be presupposed that it would intend to keep the woman pregnant, and as such the woman would be excused of contributory negligence. But it doesn't and it can't, so whats the point??

    I agree that beginning of mental life would be a good spot, as prior to that point it doesn't really matter if she consents or not,
    since if we take it that the fetus has no rights before it is mentally alive, then the only rights that matter are the woman's, hence the lower bound.

    Agreed.

    Agreed.

    Agreed.

    Agreed. We definitely need to make it as easy as possible for people to get access to effective contraception as well as early term abortions.

    -Meta
     
  13. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    What the quote from the study refers to is the point at which pain may be perceived.
    What you seem to be referring to is "Nociception"; this is also discussed in the study, and is described as a reflex movement in response to a noxious stimulus, without cortical involvement or conscious pain perception. (though I've seen alternative definitions)
    The structures facilitating this develop earlier than the structures for pain perception. As early as 7 weeks.

    http://jama.jamanetwork.com/article.aspx?articleid=201429

    -Meta
     
  14. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    You, like Alpha are referring to "Nociception"; described by the study as a reflex movement in response to a noxious stimulus, without cortical involvement or conscious pain perception, structures for which exist before the circuitry for pain perception at as early as 7 weeks.

    The study says that the main pain perception circuitry, including thalamic pain fibers connected to the cortex, don't exist 'till around the 24th week, but that scientists have theorized that the fibers are not necessary and that a pain communication pathway can be established to the cortex at as early as 20 weeks. The study says that this non-fiber pathway has not been proven, nor has it been proven not to exist, hence the need for further research.

    Does not change the fact that the pain would exist. I've never broken an arm, but I'm sure it would be painful for me the first time it happened.

    That is what the study refers to as "Nociception", a reflexive reaction, and is separate from the perception of pain.

    I don't believe I've overlooked them and believe my question was sufficiently specific. If I have overlooked something, please point it out to me.

    I posted an example of a woman who aborted her child a few posts back that appears to meet most of the criteria detailed in the question.

    Here's the link:
    http://www.lifesitenews.com/news/wo...two-days-before-due-date-has-sentence-reduced

    I'm not suggesting the Roe decision implies consent, as that would be committing the appeal to law fallacy.
    What I'm suggesting/asking (and which you actually already answered in another post) is that a woman who chooses not to get an abortion/use contraception etc when she has the options to implicitly consents to the ongoing pregnancy. And, if she, knowing she was pregnant, had the option to choose an abortion before the pregnancy reached late term, but chose not to, then she has implicitly consented to the pregnancy reaching late term.

    Thanks.

    We were talking about an ovum though, but regardless, just because the law/courts imply that a fetus or ovum can have intentions does not make it true,
    and please note that I do not base justifications on what the law/court says unless I'm making a legal argument,
    as to do otherwise would be to commit the appeal to law fallacy.

    If you mean "interests" as in what is ultimately good for the fetus's continued existence, then that is irrelevant.

    And what I'm saying is that to require consent from the Fetus doesn't make sense.
    In the same way one can't expect the guy who got chained to someone elses bed to have provided consent.
    But that neither provided consent doesn't mean they shouldn't have rights.

    And no, this is not to say I think a person should ever be forced to suffer, I believe a person always has a right to avoid death and serious injury,
    however if it is their actions which lead to a situation in which it was inevitable that at least one of the two parties would end up suffering no matter which subsequent choices were made, then I believe they should be held accountable for creating such a situation.

    My two main points, for reference:

    1. Putting someone into a position in which they have no choice but to harm you in order to survive, intentionally or unintentionally,
    does not excuse you if you end up killing them to protect yourself.

    and

    2. A person who is put into a position, not by their own will, should not be expected to get consent to be there.
    And the fact that such a person hasn't gotten consent should not be taken to imply that anyone has the right to kill or injure them.

    -Meta
     
  15. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    The point being, as pointed out in book, that it is the states presumption, which leads them to impose restrictions, that the fetus 's intentions would be to to force the woman to maintain the pregnancy . .those restrictions form a precedence in law that the fetus would 'choose' to maintain the pregnancy. It is like the presumption that a child under a certain age cannot consent to sexual relations (I must add I don't condone sexual relations for children), even if the child insists they consented.

    You must understand that it is very rare to debate with someone who actually agrees, for the most, with the items I (& others) put forward, the usual responses are just outright denial. and hence garners a reaction in the same vein.

    and that is the main purpose of pro-choice groups, of course there are those who would insist that abortion should be unrestricted at any time for any reason, and they do have a point when you compare countries with restrictions to those without and you find, on the whole, that their abortions rates are either lower or comparative to the USA. This says to me that restrictions are not the way to reduce abortion.

    We know that abortion is already a three tier system. First trimester the decision rests solely with the woman. Second trimester the decision requires a doctors agreement. Third trimester is only for life threats to the woman and/or fetal disability incompatible with life, this I believe fits very well into your mental life idea, and as such the battle should now be focused in reducing the reasons for unintended pregnancies and the wealth of evidence shows that this can be achieved through comprehensive sex education and freely available contraception .. yet .. it is the same core of pro-lifers who fight so hard against the very measures that would, to a point, give them what they want, a reduction in abortions. I argue the way I do purely to fight fire with fire. I cannot and will not stand idly by and allow pro-lifers to impose the, mostly religious, views onto others.
     
  16. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Hey, I deny stuff too.

    -Meta
     
  17. Fugazi

    Fugazi New Member Past Donor

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    don't we all lol

    Difference is you actually offer relevant arguments to what you deny .. the "I don't believe that is correct, because ...", where as most of the pro-lifers I have encountered here, and other forums, don't give a single reason.
     
  18. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    As I stated even a CARROT when damaged will on a cellular level sent what is the equivalent as a pain response but without a brain or in the case we are discussing without higher brain function it means nothing.

    AboveAlpha
     
  19. Alucard

    Alucard New Member Past Donor

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    It is one of those unsolved questions.
     
  20. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    This is how uninformed the Anti-Abortion Lobby is as far as this question.

    Life exists prior to conception.

    The Sperm and Egg Cells are complete independent life forms and so is a carrot, cabbage, piece of celery..etc.

    A Fertilized Egg is alive but it is NOT a Human Being.

    A Human Being is classified as a Multi-Cellular Bio-mechanical Construct that is MULTI-SPECIES in it's nature.

    A Human Being has both Human Cells and a large number of Cells of other Life Forms that without would not allow a Human Being to live.

    The Human Digestive System, Skin and Excretory Systems are LOADED with the cells of a large number of non-human species and they must exist as without these non-human cells a human being could not live.

    AboveAlpha
     
  21. JakeJ

    JakeJ Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Contrary to the religious doctrine that every new person comes into existence by being "conceived" in the mind of God, no person have ever been "conceived" into existence.
     
  22. Phoebe Bump

    Phoebe Bump New Member

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    Until somebody comes down from a mountain top with a tablet that tells me when life begins, I'll probably just go with my old "life begins with consciousness" paradigm. And until the pro-lifers come to the realization that high explosives and injectable cocktails erase consciousness, I'll probably continue to be their opponent.
     
  23. JakeJ

    JakeJ Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    A homo sapien is a multi-organisms super colony creature, yes.

    - - - Updated - - -

    If pushed on the subject in a logical sense (not really possible), most prolifers agree with you that consciousness is a necessary element to being a human being. Most prolifers will say that a person who is "brain dead" is no longer a person and that artificial life support can be terminated.
     
  24. AboveAlpha

    AboveAlpha Well-Known Member

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    No...they have not.

    In fact a Fertilized Egg Cell is not even a POTENTIAL Human Being until it implants itself in the Uterine Wall.

    This is why it is so important for us to educate kids BEFORE they are old enough to either get pregnant or get someone pregnant to the reality that the use of Plan B and Morning After Drugs asap after unprotected intercourse will not allow a Fertilize Egg to implant itself in the Uterine wall.

    No implantation....no pregnancy....thus no possibility of an Abortion.

    The Ultra-Religious Groups have no problem with a couple who goes to a Fertility Clinic to get pregnant as the clinic doctors will only use a few Fertilized Egg Cells for use of implantation and the rest of the fertilized egg cells are discarded and die.....but for some idiotic reason they have a problem of the use of Plan B and Morning After Drugs.


    This is the HEIGHT OF HYPOCRISY!!!.

    AboveAlpha
     

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