EU to slap sanctions on Poland?

Did France not knew for what purpose Hitler concentrated the Wehrmacht on the border with Poland?
What prevented French start mobilizing earlier than 1 September? .....to at least really scare Hitler ...
What prevented the French to attack Hitler after 4 .. 5 weeks? ...

From 29 september 1938 Up until May 10, 1940 ....All France's actions were such as if they were talking to Hitler:
- Forward my buddy!!!

 

Nonsense ...
What prevented France to attack earlier was the incompetence of the CinC Maurice Gamelin and their fear for the "Westwall". Not only Stalin was surprised of the German fast success, the French too.

 

"Nonsense .."
There were pensioners in "Westwall".
Ammunition, gasoline, ....especially gasoline.....resource of tanks and aircraft .... Hitler spent it all in Poland. Hitler was helpless at that time.

I remind you of the quality of these equipment.
About half of the German tanks was broke down on the way to Vienna in 1938.

 

But did the French this know and even if, did they believe?
Remember that their high command did not want to believe things which harms their opinions and plans. There were a half dozen of spotters and other sort of Aircrafts who reported the huge German convoys driving through the Ardennes ... all was smashed away by them as "untrue".

You suggest French unwilling to attack Germany as background, what was in part for sure given. But in majority the reason can be summarized into one word: Incompetence!
Remember that Daladier wanted to attack and pressed on Gamelin to do, but Gamelin refuted him. Remember that Daladier wanted to have armored divisions and how Gamelin fought against this will and how he smashed away any remarks about German success of tanks in Poland as not comparable. Remember that French high command was in their fighting the last war again with some more modern weapons, but aside this unchanged in everything! And at least remember about the general quality of French Forces too and they felt all the time as lesser strong and so not strong enough for any offensive!

And finally ... don't forget that Germany made in front of the attack on Poland NO official mobilization, but hidden way and part for part. So in diploantic view was no reason for France to declare far before German attack a mobilization.

 

I've looked up French Gypsy jokes to find nothing, and German Bavarian jokes, and I found little.

As for Britain there's about as many anti-Polish as anti-Muslim hate crimes a year in Britain, even though Muslims outnumber Polish there by about 3 to 1.

So, it seems a Polish person is 3 times more likely to be a victim of a hate crime in Britain, than a Muslim.

 

I do agree with this, if France, and Britain attacked Germany in the West while it was invading Poland, it's very likely that Nazi Germany would have been knocked out.

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Poland had controlled Western Ukraine from the 1300's to the late 1700's.

That's much longer than Russia controlled this Western Ukraine.

 

Sure ... did you search in language of the countries? Obviously not ... for French it is for example "Blagues sur les gitans".

 

Yes. Of course. You have a good memory, Pan Polak.

 

It is for all these reasons, France had to do a mobilization. Defiantly and noisy. In August 1939.
The purpose of - if France have not the strength to fight, at least to really scare.
This is the case, if France and England planned to assist Poland against Hitler.

More precisely, if they did not had planned to give Poland for Hitler , as Czechoslovakia was given.

.

 

This is not more as your personal opinion and not backed by facts. They were neither scared, nor did they plan any evil ... they were simply incompetent ... not more and not less as that!

Anything else is only blabbering around and speculation or opinion only!

 

facts available.
They gave Hitler the Sudetenland (Czechoslovakia). They gave just because ....
.....because no one has understand why France and England intervened in a dispute between Hitler and Czechoslovakia in Hitler's side.( these is fact)

2.. France and England promised to help Poland, but did not help. ( these is fact)

3 ... "they were simply incompetent". - It does not release from the duty to fulfill the promise.

 

Fact is ...

1. The French and British government acted shameful in matter of Czechoslovakia at least ... and another factor was, too, that both military were far to be strong with mostly outdated weapons. Remember, the major fighter plane of RAF was the Gloster Gladiator biplane at this time ... not even the Hurricane and far away from any Spitfire! More worse in France with Air Force, as well Army too. For example was non of the even in 1940 rare anti tank guns existing! The main battle tank in number and use was the outdated FT-17 from WW-1 and some hundred Renaul R-35!
On the other side is this no excuse of course, because German military was not much better at this time and was for sure not able to fight stron Czechoslovakian Military and an against an intervention from the West!

2. Fact is that they did not help Poland and I never disputed this, but I dispute your argumentation so far, because they were not able to do and to demand that they have to make mobilization before is lame ...

3. It does not release them of course, but you always ignore facts or twist them away with lame arguments as named in point 2. You always forgot one major important point: In the heads of the Anglo-French high command, they were fighting the last war again in all major points of strategy and what depends to it including the matter of "time" ... only with some more modern weapons now.
No, this does not excuse anything and I never told that, but it explains things! in short: The West thought to have several weeks time and right when French Army starts to be able for some major actions, the war in Poland was over!

And again ... please forget your claim that they had to start mobilization earlier ... I still explained why this is not valid as argument in reality

 

It is not a "shameful". It is purposefulness.
It is shameful - if it's just not to intervene.

They had intervened in and had put pressure on the Czech .
What for?
- to help Hitler fulfill "Drang nach Osten".
What else?

)» the war in Poland was over! «

on the first hand - The war was over, because France and Britain did not  fought.
at the second - In fact, the war is not over. EnglandFrance and Hitler remained in a state of war even after the defeat of Poland.

Hitler was peg away at a task.
He was replenishing ammo and repairing war materiel.

The FrenchEngland were "smoking a bamboo" and waiting.
What FrenchEngland were waiting for?

They were waiting when Hitler would continue the implementation the plan "Drang nach Osten" further east.
What else? Is it logical?

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