Do you believe gay and trans people molest children at a higher rate than non gay or trans?

I would agree onm that. Especially the Catholics.

 

85% of the victims of priestly pedophiles are boys. Because I do not believe 85% of Roman Catholic priests are homosexuals, I see that as evidence that homosexuals are more likely to be guilty of statutory rape than heterosexuals.

 

Correlation causation fallacy. At best all you are showing is that more pedophiles are likely to be homosexuals than homosexuals are to be pedophiles.

 

It’s actually 81% were male — the vast majority of the victims however were under the age of puberty which means they did not have expressed sexual characteristics. There is a reason why psychologists do not label child molestation, especially at a very young age, to be an act of heterosexuality or homosexuality because the greatest factor is accessibility.

Now once they move past the age of puberty it could be somewhat argued as such but saying someone is gay when they raped an infant is just exposing your narrative.

 

I disagree-I spent 30 years in law enforcement in some capacity and while the priests banging altar boys was well publicized (one of my last cases that I was on a prosecution team involved a guy we called "Father Fondle-we got him federally since he took a boy across state lines and then molested him), the number of heterosexual molestations is far far far higher.

 

They don't speak for all of us

 

True, but the media was the biggest beneficiary of Obamas identity politics because everyone became fenced in by "gripe type" so they could more easily target their news.
Who is left standing who dares to speak for you?

 

I speak for myself

 

Which in turn makes the attacker a ****phile, or an ephebophile, depending on the age of the victim. That's before we look at whether there was a sexual attraction or not. Given that rape itself is usually a matter of power instead of sexual attraction, the predator might not even be a MAP (used in this case to easily refer to all three disorders).

 

That's still a correlation causation fallacy. Can you show where it was not a matter of easy accessibility? Maybe something to show easy access to girls of the same age with the same ease of access, but passed over?

 

I don’t understand the need for some people wanting to label a pedo as anything other than a pedo. The only thing anyone should be worried about is keeping them away from children and when they offend making sure they never harm another child again.

We also need to hold the organizations responsible that knew about it or hid it.

 

The number is, but what about the percentage?

 

There are three factors here. First, there are three (with a possible 4th being determined last I head) separate disorders at play. They are based upon the age of the minor. Pedophilia is an attraction to prepubescent children. Which renders those attracted to older minors not pedophiles. No less detrimental to a minor if they assault, but still not a pedophile. Second, having one of the disorders is not necessary to commit child sexual assault. Other reasons besides the attraction caused by the disorder can result in a minor attacked. Finally, simply having the disorder does not mean a guaranteed attack. If the affected individual can get the needed therapy and help then that lessens the odds of another child being attacked. This is before we look a the fact that female pedophiles and other women who sexually assault minors typically get passes or lessor sentences, and the fact that simply castrating the males does not lessen the disorder or render them unable to attack.

 

Not enough to make any difference.

 

Because you do not believe....

You really should publish this in a psychological journal. Your methodology is impeccable.

 

If I cannot prove something I reserve judgment on it.

 

And you have not “proven” anything in this thread so far. How about backing your statements with research

 

cannot tell you-probably close to the same percentage of straights in society versus gays

 

Percentage with regard to what

 

I think he's trying to make the argument others have done this as well because openly gay people only represent 1% of the population that that 1% that's openly gay has to be the ones molesting boys.

Most men who molest boys identify themselves even have relationships with women.

 

What percentage of homosexuals sexually abuse minors as opposed to the percentage of heterosexuals who sexually abuse minors. I think homosexuals are more likely to be guilty of this, but I would like to look at some credible data. In an issue like this a lot of people, even heterosexual people, feel protective toward homosexuals, so they will try to conceal the truth.

For example, it is difficult to learn how the crime rates of Negroes in European countries differs from the crime rates of whites. A website will say that blacks are more likely to be incarcerated. This can leave one with the suspicion that the criminal justice systems of European countries are unfairly biased against Negroes.

 

this source is UC Davis and it says it's about 3% of openly gay men same as the 3% of heterosexual men.

It's kind of buried in there.

https://lgbpsychology.org/html/facts_molestation.html

So what would you think gay people are more likely to sexually abuse children just out of curiosity

 

85% of the victims of pedophile priests are boys. I do not think 85% of Roman Catholic priests are homosexuals.

 

I think your premise is faulty. I don't think anyone believes that gay and trans groom kids for molestation. They groom them to assimilate them to believe in their innate tendency to be gay or trans. You could not have more completely missed the target.

 

NO.
Only MAGA types are easily manipulated to nonsensical beliefs